Proving this is a linear subspace











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I need to prove the following is a subspace:



Let $V$ be a set of vectors over $F=mathbb{R}$, $V=operatorname{Functions}(mathbb{R} ,mathbb{R})$ and $W$ is a subgroup of $V$ such that $$W={fin V| , f(x)=f(-x)}$$



I'm not sure about the "close under vector addition" part.



My solution: Let be $w_1 , w_2 in W. w_1={fin V| , f(x_1)=f(-x_1)},,,,w_2={fin V| , f(x_2)=f(-x_2)}$. Therefore:
$$w_1+w_2=f(x_1+x_2)=f(x_1)+f(x_2)=f(-x_1)+f(-x_2)=fbig(-(x_1+x_2)big)\
$$



Please tell me if something is wrong here (I feel like something is wrong...). Many thanks for you time and effort.










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    up vote
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    down vote

    favorite
    1












    I need to prove the following is a subspace:



    Let $V$ be a set of vectors over $F=mathbb{R}$, $V=operatorname{Functions}(mathbb{R} ,mathbb{R})$ and $W$ is a subgroup of $V$ such that $$W={fin V| , f(x)=f(-x)}$$



    I'm not sure about the "close under vector addition" part.



    My solution: Let be $w_1 , w_2 in W. w_1={fin V| , f(x_1)=f(-x_1)},,,,w_2={fin V| , f(x_2)=f(-x_2)}$. Therefore:
    $$w_1+w_2=f(x_1+x_2)=f(x_1)+f(x_2)=f(-x_1)+f(-x_2)=fbig(-(x_1+x_2)big)\
    $$



    Please tell me if something is wrong here (I feel like something is wrong...). Many thanks for you time and effort.










    share|cite|improve this question


























      up vote
      5
      down vote

      favorite
      1









      up vote
      5
      down vote

      favorite
      1






      1





      I need to prove the following is a subspace:



      Let $V$ be a set of vectors over $F=mathbb{R}$, $V=operatorname{Functions}(mathbb{R} ,mathbb{R})$ and $W$ is a subgroup of $V$ such that $$W={fin V| , f(x)=f(-x)}$$



      I'm not sure about the "close under vector addition" part.



      My solution: Let be $w_1 , w_2 in W. w_1={fin V| , f(x_1)=f(-x_1)},,,,w_2={fin V| , f(x_2)=f(-x_2)}$. Therefore:
      $$w_1+w_2=f(x_1+x_2)=f(x_1)+f(x_2)=f(-x_1)+f(-x_2)=fbig(-(x_1+x_2)big)\
      $$



      Please tell me if something is wrong here (I feel like something is wrong...). Many thanks for you time and effort.










      share|cite|improve this question















      I need to prove the following is a subspace:



      Let $V$ be a set of vectors over $F=mathbb{R}$, $V=operatorname{Functions}(mathbb{R} ,mathbb{R})$ and $W$ is a subgroup of $V$ such that $$W={fin V| , f(x)=f(-x)}$$



      I'm not sure about the "close under vector addition" part.



      My solution: Let be $w_1 , w_2 in W. w_1={fin V| , f(x_1)=f(-x_1)},,,,w_2={fin V| , f(x_2)=f(-x_2)}$. Therefore:
      $$w_1+w_2=f(x_1+x_2)=f(x_1)+f(x_2)=f(-x_1)+f(-x_2)=fbig(-(x_1+x_2)big)\
      $$



      Please tell me if something is wrong here (I feel like something is wrong...). Many thanks for you time and effort.







      linear-algebra






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      edited Apr 17 '13 at 18:20









      amWhy

      191k28224439




      191k28224439










      asked Apr 17 '13 at 18:03









      yuvalz

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      357112






















          2 Answers
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          accepted










          Your thinking about $W$ is muddled, as evidenced when you refer to $w_1$ and $w_2$ as sets. You may as well call them $f_1$ and $f_2$ because they are functions, and they are the elements of $W$ (vectors) that you are working with.



          There is no reason to index the $x$: it is just an arbitrary element of $Bbb R$. I suspect you have fallen into a common misunderstanding among beginners. The fact is that the functions are the elements of the vector space. (Whereas beginners sometimes are overly attached to the $x$ being an element of a vector space.)



          By virtue of being in $W$, both of them have the property that
          $f_i(x)=f_i(-x)$. Then



          $$
          (f_1+f_2)(x)=dots=(f_1+f_2)(-x)
          $$



          proving that $f_1+f_2$ is also a member of $W$. (I omitted the middle computation so you could puzzle it out :) )



          See if you can do the closure under scalars now: the goal is to show that if $lambdain Bbb R$, if $fin W$, then $lambda fin W$. Finally, show that $0in W$, "0" here denoting the function that is constantly 0 on $Bbb R$.



          In words, what you are doing is showing that the even functions on $Bbb R$ form a subspace. As a followup exercise, you could additionally show that the odd functions also form a subspace of $V$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Is that the missing part?: $$(f_1 + f_2)(x)=f_1(x)+f_2(x)=f_1(-x)+f_2(-x)=(f_1+f_2)(-x)$$ Also, for the scalar ($alpha in mathbb{R}$): $$alpha f(x)=f(alpha x) = f(-alpha x)=alpha f(-x)$$
            – yuvalz
            Apr 17 '13 at 18:32












          • @yuvalz You are perfectly right on the first part... but the second part has a mistake. There is no reason to believe $alpha f(x)=f(alpha x)$. It should look like this: $(alpha f)(x):=alpha cdot f(x)=dots=(alpha f)(-x)$.
            – rschwieb
            Apr 17 '13 at 18:48




















          up vote
          0
          down vote













          Your understanding is a little off. Here, a vector in $V$ is a function $f:mathbb{R}tomathbb{R}$, and those in $W$ are exactly the functions satisfying $f(x)=f(-x)$. Such functions are called "even." Now suppose that $f_1$ and $f_2$ are two even functions. See if you can show that the function $f_1+f_2$ defined by $(f_1+f_2)(x)=f_1(x)+f_2(x)$ is also even.






          share|cite|improve this answer























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            2 Answers
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            active

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            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

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            active

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            active

            oldest

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            up vote
            2
            down vote



            accepted










            Your thinking about $W$ is muddled, as evidenced when you refer to $w_1$ and $w_2$ as sets. You may as well call them $f_1$ and $f_2$ because they are functions, and they are the elements of $W$ (vectors) that you are working with.



            There is no reason to index the $x$: it is just an arbitrary element of $Bbb R$. I suspect you have fallen into a common misunderstanding among beginners. The fact is that the functions are the elements of the vector space. (Whereas beginners sometimes are overly attached to the $x$ being an element of a vector space.)



            By virtue of being in $W$, both of them have the property that
            $f_i(x)=f_i(-x)$. Then



            $$
            (f_1+f_2)(x)=dots=(f_1+f_2)(-x)
            $$



            proving that $f_1+f_2$ is also a member of $W$. (I omitted the middle computation so you could puzzle it out :) )



            See if you can do the closure under scalars now: the goal is to show that if $lambdain Bbb R$, if $fin W$, then $lambda fin W$. Finally, show that $0in W$, "0" here denoting the function that is constantly 0 on $Bbb R$.



            In words, what you are doing is showing that the even functions on $Bbb R$ form a subspace. As a followup exercise, you could additionally show that the odd functions also form a subspace of $V$.






            share|cite|improve this answer























            • Is that the missing part?: $$(f_1 + f_2)(x)=f_1(x)+f_2(x)=f_1(-x)+f_2(-x)=(f_1+f_2)(-x)$$ Also, for the scalar ($alpha in mathbb{R}$): $$alpha f(x)=f(alpha x) = f(-alpha x)=alpha f(-x)$$
              – yuvalz
              Apr 17 '13 at 18:32












            • @yuvalz You are perfectly right on the first part... but the second part has a mistake. There is no reason to believe $alpha f(x)=f(alpha x)$. It should look like this: $(alpha f)(x):=alpha cdot f(x)=dots=(alpha f)(-x)$.
              – rschwieb
              Apr 17 '13 at 18:48

















            up vote
            2
            down vote



            accepted










            Your thinking about $W$ is muddled, as evidenced when you refer to $w_1$ and $w_2$ as sets. You may as well call them $f_1$ and $f_2$ because they are functions, and they are the elements of $W$ (vectors) that you are working with.



            There is no reason to index the $x$: it is just an arbitrary element of $Bbb R$. I suspect you have fallen into a common misunderstanding among beginners. The fact is that the functions are the elements of the vector space. (Whereas beginners sometimes are overly attached to the $x$ being an element of a vector space.)



            By virtue of being in $W$, both of them have the property that
            $f_i(x)=f_i(-x)$. Then



            $$
            (f_1+f_2)(x)=dots=(f_1+f_2)(-x)
            $$



            proving that $f_1+f_2$ is also a member of $W$. (I omitted the middle computation so you could puzzle it out :) )



            See if you can do the closure under scalars now: the goal is to show that if $lambdain Bbb R$, if $fin W$, then $lambda fin W$. Finally, show that $0in W$, "0" here denoting the function that is constantly 0 on $Bbb R$.



            In words, what you are doing is showing that the even functions on $Bbb R$ form a subspace. As a followup exercise, you could additionally show that the odd functions also form a subspace of $V$.






            share|cite|improve this answer























            • Is that the missing part?: $$(f_1 + f_2)(x)=f_1(x)+f_2(x)=f_1(-x)+f_2(-x)=(f_1+f_2)(-x)$$ Also, for the scalar ($alpha in mathbb{R}$): $$alpha f(x)=f(alpha x) = f(-alpha x)=alpha f(-x)$$
              – yuvalz
              Apr 17 '13 at 18:32












            • @yuvalz You are perfectly right on the first part... but the second part has a mistake. There is no reason to believe $alpha f(x)=f(alpha x)$. It should look like this: $(alpha f)(x):=alpha cdot f(x)=dots=(alpha f)(-x)$.
              – rschwieb
              Apr 17 '13 at 18:48















            up vote
            2
            down vote



            accepted







            up vote
            2
            down vote



            accepted






            Your thinking about $W$ is muddled, as evidenced when you refer to $w_1$ and $w_2$ as sets. You may as well call them $f_1$ and $f_2$ because they are functions, and they are the elements of $W$ (vectors) that you are working with.



            There is no reason to index the $x$: it is just an arbitrary element of $Bbb R$. I suspect you have fallen into a common misunderstanding among beginners. The fact is that the functions are the elements of the vector space. (Whereas beginners sometimes are overly attached to the $x$ being an element of a vector space.)



            By virtue of being in $W$, both of them have the property that
            $f_i(x)=f_i(-x)$. Then



            $$
            (f_1+f_2)(x)=dots=(f_1+f_2)(-x)
            $$



            proving that $f_1+f_2$ is also a member of $W$. (I omitted the middle computation so you could puzzle it out :) )



            See if you can do the closure under scalars now: the goal is to show that if $lambdain Bbb R$, if $fin W$, then $lambda fin W$. Finally, show that $0in W$, "0" here denoting the function that is constantly 0 on $Bbb R$.



            In words, what you are doing is showing that the even functions on $Bbb R$ form a subspace. As a followup exercise, you could additionally show that the odd functions also form a subspace of $V$.






            share|cite|improve this answer














            Your thinking about $W$ is muddled, as evidenced when you refer to $w_1$ and $w_2$ as sets. You may as well call them $f_1$ and $f_2$ because they are functions, and they are the elements of $W$ (vectors) that you are working with.



            There is no reason to index the $x$: it is just an arbitrary element of $Bbb R$. I suspect you have fallen into a common misunderstanding among beginners. The fact is that the functions are the elements of the vector space. (Whereas beginners sometimes are overly attached to the $x$ being an element of a vector space.)



            By virtue of being in $W$, both of them have the property that
            $f_i(x)=f_i(-x)$. Then



            $$
            (f_1+f_2)(x)=dots=(f_1+f_2)(-x)
            $$



            proving that $f_1+f_2$ is also a member of $W$. (I omitted the middle computation so you could puzzle it out :) )



            See if you can do the closure under scalars now: the goal is to show that if $lambdain Bbb R$, if $fin W$, then $lambda fin W$. Finally, show that $0in W$, "0" here denoting the function that is constantly 0 on $Bbb R$.



            In words, what you are doing is showing that the even functions on $Bbb R$ form a subspace. As a followup exercise, you could additionally show that the odd functions also form a subspace of $V$.







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Apr 17 '13 at 18:18

























            answered Apr 17 '13 at 18:09









            rschwieb

            104k1299241




            104k1299241












            • Is that the missing part?: $$(f_1 + f_2)(x)=f_1(x)+f_2(x)=f_1(-x)+f_2(-x)=(f_1+f_2)(-x)$$ Also, for the scalar ($alpha in mathbb{R}$): $$alpha f(x)=f(alpha x) = f(-alpha x)=alpha f(-x)$$
              – yuvalz
              Apr 17 '13 at 18:32












            • @yuvalz You are perfectly right on the first part... but the second part has a mistake. There is no reason to believe $alpha f(x)=f(alpha x)$. It should look like this: $(alpha f)(x):=alpha cdot f(x)=dots=(alpha f)(-x)$.
              – rschwieb
              Apr 17 '13 at 18:48




















            • Is that the missing part?: $$(f_1 + f_2)(x)=f_1(x)+f_2(x)=f_1(-x)+f_2(-x)=(f_1+f_2)(-x)$$ Also, for the scalar ($alpha in mathbb{R}$): $$alpha f(x)=f(alpha x) = f(-alpha x)=alpha f(-x)$$
              – yuvalz
              Apr 17 '13 at 18:32












            • @yuvalz You are perfectly right on the first part... but the second part has a mistake. There is no reason to believe $alpha f(x)=f(alpha x)$. It should look like this: $(alpha f)(x):=alpha cdot f(x)=dots=(alpha f)(-x)$.
              – rschwieb
              Apr 17 '13 at 18:48


















            Is that the missing part?: $$(f_1 + f_2)(x)=f_1(x)+f_2(x)=f_1(-x)+f_2(-x)=(f_1+f_2)(-x)$$ Also, for the scalar ($alpha in mathbb{R}$): $$alpha f(x)=f(alpha x) = f(-alpha x)=alpha f(-x)$$
            – yuvalz
            Apr 17 '13 at 18:32






            Is that the missing part?: $$(f_1 + f_2)(x)=f_1(x)+f_2(x)=f_1(-x)+f_2(-x)=(f_1+f_2)(-x)$$ Also, for the scalar ($alpha in mathbb{R}$): $$alpha f(x)=f(alpha x) = f(-alpha x)=alpha f(-x)$$
            – yuvalz
            Apr 17 '13 at 18:32














            @yuvalz You are perfectly right on the first part... but the second part has a mistake. There is no reason to believe $alpha f(x)=f(alpha x)$. It should look like this: $(alpha f)(x):=alpha cdot f(x)=dots=(alpha f)(-x)$.
            – rschwieb
            Apr 17 '13 at 18:48






            @yuvalz You are perfectly right on the first part... but the second part has a mistake. There is no reason to believe $alpha f(x)=f(alpha x)$. It should look like this: $(alpha f)(x):=alpha cdot f(x)=dots=(alpha f)(-x)$.
            – rschwieb
            Apr 17 '13 at 18:48












            up vote
            0
            down vote













            Your understanding is a little off. Here, a vector in $V$ is a function $f:mathbb{R}tomathbb{R}$, and those in $W$ are exactly the functions satisfying $f(x)=f(-x)$. Such functions are called "even." Now suppose that $f_1$ and $f_2$ are two even functions. See if you can show that the function $f_1+f_2$ defined by $(f_1+f_2)(x)=f_1(x)+f_2(x)$ is also even.






            share|cite|improve this answer



























              up vote
              0
              down vote













              Your understanding is a little off. Here, a vector in $V$ is a function $f:mathbb{R}tomathbb{R}$, and those in $W$ are exactly the functions satisfying $f(x)=f(-x)$. Such functions are called "even." Now suppose that $f_1$ and $f_2$ are two even functions. See if you can show that the function $f_1+f_2$ defined by $(f_1+f_2)(x)=f_1(x)+f_2(x)$ is also even.






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                0
                down vote










                up vote
                0
                down vote









                Your understanding is a little off. Here, a vector in $V$ is a function $f:mathbb{R}tomathbb{R}$, and those in $W$ are exactly the functions satisfying $f(x)=f(-x)$. Such functions are called "even." Now suppose that $f_1$ and $f_2$ are two even functions. See if you can show that the function $f_1+f_2$ defined by $(f_1+f_2)(x)=f_1(x)+f_2(x)$ is also even.






                share|cite|improve this answer














                Your understanding is a little off. Here, a vector in $V$ is a function $f:mathbb{R}tomathbb{R}$, and those in $W$ are exactly the functions satisfying $f(x)=f(-x)$. Such functions are called "even." Now suppose that $f_1$ and $f_2$ are two even functions. See if you can show that the function $f_1+f_2$ defined by $(f_1+f_2)(x)=f_1(x)+f_2(x)$ is also even.







                share|cite|improve this answer














                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer








                edited Apr 19 '13 at 0:12

























                answered Apr 17 '13 at 18:12









                Jared

                24.1k104599




                24.1k104599






























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