Show that the Hahn Banach extension is unique.











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Suppose $X = ell_{infty}$ and $Y = c_0$, considered as a subspace of $X$. How can I show that if $y^{ast}in Y^{ast}$ and $ | y^{ast}| = 1$, then the norm preserving Hahn Banach extension is unique?










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  • Some questions for clarification: do you want $Y$ to be $c_0$, the space of sequences which tend to $0$ with the sup norm, and $X$ to be $Y^{**}$? Also, what do you mean by "the norm preserving Hahn-Banach extension"? What functional are you extending, to what space?
    – Ashwin Trisal
    Nov 23 at 22:16










  • what i mean is Y as a subspace of X and by Hahn Banach theorem, we can extend $y^{ast}$ to $x^{ast}$ defined on X such that their norm equal.
    – Rikka
    Nov 23 at 22:21








  • 1




    What makes you think that it is unique?
    – fedja
    Nov 23 at 22:23










  • This appears to be false. See math.stackexchange.com/a/2992237/343481.
    – Ashwin Trisal
    Nov 23 at 22:36










  • This is an exercise given by my prof, I was having a lot of troubles trying to do it.
    – Rikka
    Nov 23 at 22:46















up vote
0
down vote

favorite












Suppose $X = ell_{infty}$ and $Y = c_0$, considered as a subspace of $X$. How can I show that if $y^{ast}in Y^{ast}$ and $ | y^{ast}| = 1$, then the norm preserving Hahn Banach extension is unique?










share|cite|improve this question
























  • Some questions for clarification: do you want $Y$ to be $c_0$, the space of sequences which tend to $0$ with the sup norm, and $X$ to be $Y^{**}$? Also, what do you mean by "the norm preserving Hahn-Banach extension"? What functional are you extending, to what space?
    – Ashwin Trisal
    Nov 23 at 22:16










  • what i mean is Y as a subspace of X and by Hahn Banach theorem, we can extend $y^{ast}$ to $x^{ast}$ defined on X such that their norm equal.
    – Rikka
    Nov 23 at 22:21








  • 1




    What makes you think that it is unique?
    – fedja
    Nov 23 at 22:23










  • This appears to be false. See math.stackexchange.com/a/2992237/343481.
    – Ashwin Trisal
    Nov 23 at 22:36










  • This is an exercise given by my prof, I was having a lot of troubles trying to do it.
    – Rikka
    Nov 23 at 22:46













up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











Suppose $X = ell_{infty}$ and $Y = c_0$, considered as a subspace of $X$. How can I show that if $y^{ast}in Y^{ast}$ and $ | y^{ast}| = 1$, then the norm preserving Hahn Banach extension is unique?










share|cite|improve this question















Suppose $X = ell_{infty}$ and $Y = c_0$, considered as a subspace of $X$. How can I show that if $y^{ast}in Y^{ast}$ and $ | y^{ast}| = 1$, then the norm preserving Hahn Banach extension is unique?







functional-analysis






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edited Nov 23 at 23:51









Ashwin Trisal

1,0901515




1,0901515










asked Nov 23 at 20:45









Rikka

1729




1729












  • Some questions for clarification: do you want $Y$ to be $c_0$, the space of sequences which tend to $0$ with the sup norm, and $X$ to be $Y^{**}$? Also, what do you mean by "the norm preserving Hahn-Banach extension"? What functional are you extending, to what space?
    – Ashwin Trisal
    Nov 23 at 22:16










  • what i mean is Y as a subspace of X and by Hahn Banach theorem, we can extend $y^{ast}$ to $x^{ast}$ defined on X such that their norm equal.
    – Rikka
    Nov 23 at 22:21








  • 1




    What makes you think that it is unique?
    – fedja
    Nov 23 at 22:23










  • This appears to be false. See math.stackexchange.com/a/2992237/343481.
    – Ashwin Trisal
    Nov 23 at 22:36










  • This is an exercise given by my prof, I was having a lot of troubles trying to do it.
    – Rikka
    Nov 23 at 22:46


















  • Some questions for clarification: do you want $Y$ to be $c_0$, the space of sequences which tend to $0$ with the sup norm, and $X$ to be $Y^{**}$? Also, what do you mean by "the norm preserving Hahn-Banach extension"? What functional are you extending, to what space?
    – Ashwin Trisal
    Nov 23 at 22:16










  • what i mean is Y as a subspace of X and by Hahn Banach theorem, we can extend $y^{ast}$ to $x^{ast}$ defined on X such that their norm equal.
    – Rikka
    Nov 23 at 22:21








  • 1




    What makes you think that it is unique?
    – fedja
    Nov 23 at 22:23










  • This appears to be false. See math.stackexchange.com/a/2992237/343481.
    – Ashwin Trisal
    Nov 23 at 22:36










  • This is an exercise given by my prof, I was having a lot of troubles trying to do it.
    – Rikka
    Nov 23 at 22:46
















Some questions for clarification: do you want $Y$ to be $c_0$, the space of sequences which tend to $0$ with the sup norm, and $X$ to be $Y^{**}$? Also, what do you mean by "the norm preserving Hahn-Banach extension"? What functional are you extending, to what space?
– Ashwin Trisal
Nov 23 at 22:16




Some questions for clarification: do you want $Y$ to be $c_0$, the space of sequences which tend to $0$ with the sup norm, and $X$ to be $Y^{**}$? Also, what do you mean by "the norm preserving Hahn-Banach extension"? What functional are you extending, to what space?
– Ashwin Trisal
Nov 23 at 22:16












what i mean is Y as a subspace of X and by Hahn Banach theorem, we can extend $y^{ast}$ to $x^{ast}$ defined on X such that their norm equal.
– Rikka
Nov 23 at 22:21






what i mean is Y as a subspace of X and by Hahn Banach theorem, we can extend $y^{ast}$ to $x^{ast}$ defined on X such that their norm equal.
– Rikka
Nov 23 at 22:21






1




1




What makes you think that it is unique?
– fedja
Nov 23 at 22:23




What makes you think that it is unique?
– fedja
Nov 23 at 22:23












This appears to be false. See math.stackexchange.com/a/2992237/343481.
– Ashwin Trisal
Nov 23 at 22:36




This appears to be false. See math.stackexchange.com/a/2992237/343481.
– Ashwin Trisal
Nov 23 at 22:36












This is an exercise given by my prof, I was having a lot of troubles trying to do it.
– Rikka
Nov 23 at 22:46




This is an exercise given by my prof, I was having a lot of troubles trying to do it.
– Rikka
Nov 23 at 22:46










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It is clear that $y^*$ can be identified with $y in ell^1$ and this generates the functional
$g : x mapsto sum_{i = 1}^infty x_i y_i$
for $x in ell^infty$.



Now, suppose that $f in X^*$ is a different extension with the same norm. Then, $f - g$ vanishes on $c_0$. However, there must be $hat x in ell^infty$ with
$$(f-g)(hat x) = 1.$$



Even more, let $T_n$ be the operator that sets the first elements of a sequence to zero. Then,
$$(f-g)(T_n hat x) = (f-g)(hat x) = 1.$$
However, $g(T_n hat x) to 0$ and, thus, $f(T_n hat x) to 1$.
Finally, we consider for $k in mathbb N$ the sequence $z_k$ with entries
$$
(z_k)_n
=
begin{cases}
K,operatorname{sign}(y_n)& text{for } n < k, \
hat x_n&text{else},
end{cases}
$$

Where $K = |hat x|_{ell^infty}$.
Then,
$$f(z_k) to K , | y |_{ell^1} + 1.$$
However, $|z_k|_{ell^infty} le K$. This contradicts that $|f|_{X^star} = |y|_{ell^1}$.






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    It is clear that $y^*$ can be identified with $y in ell^1$ and this generates the functional
    $g : x mapsto sum_{i = 1}^infty x_i y_i$
    for $x in ell^infty$.



    Now, suppose that $f in X^*$ is a different extension with the same norm. Then, $f - g$ vanishes on $c_0$. However, there must be $hat x in ell^infty$ with
    $$(f-g)(hat x) = 1.$$



    Even more, let $T_n$ be the operator that sets the first elements of a sequence to zero. Then,
    $$(f-g)(T_n hat x) = (f-g)(hat x) = 1.$$
    However, $g(T_n hat x) to 0$ and, thus, $f(T_n hat x) to 1$.
    Finally, we consider for $k in mathbb N$ the sequence $z_k$ with entries
    $$
    (z_k)_n
    =
    begin{cases}
    K,operatorname{sign}(y_n)& text{for } n < k, \
    hat x_n&text{else},
    end{cases}
    $$

    Where $K = |hat x|_{ell^infty}$.
    Then,
    $$f(z_k) to K , | y |_{ell^1} + 1.$$
    However, $|z_k|_{ell^infty} le K$. This contradicts that $|f|_{X^star} = |y|_{ell^1}$.






    share|cite|improve this answer

























      up vote
      0
      down vote













      It is clear that $y^*$ can be identified with $y in ell^1$ and this generates the functional
      $g : x mapsto sum_{i = 1}^infty x_i y_i$
      for $x in ell^infty$.



      Now, suppose that $f in X^*$ is a different extension with the same norm. Then, $f - g$ vanishes on $c_0$. However, there must be $hat x in ell^infty$ with
      $$(f-g)(hat x) = 1.$$



      Even more, let $T_n$ be the operator that sets the first elements of a sequence to zero. Then,
      $$(f-g)(T_n hat x) = (f-g)(hat x) = 1.$$
      However, $g(T_n hat x) to 0$ and, thus, $f(T_n hat x) to 1$.
      Finally, we consider for $k in mathbb N$ the sequence $z_k$ with entries
      $$
      (z_k)_n
      =
      begin{cases}
      K,operatorname{sign}(y_n)& text{for } n < k, \
      hat x_n&text{else},
      end{cases}
      $$

      Where $K = |hat x|_{ell^infty}$.
      Then,
      $$f(z_k) to K , | y |_{ell^1} + 1.$$
      However, $|z_k|_{ell^infty} le K$. This contradicts that $|f|_{X^star} = |y|_{ell^1}$.






      share|cite|improve this answer























        up vote
        0
        down vote










        up vote
        0
        down vote









        It is clear that $y^*$ can be identified with $y in ell^1$ and this generates the functional
        $g : x mapsto sum_{i = 1}^infty x_i y_i$
        for $x in ell^infty$.



        Now, suppose that $f in X^*$ is a different extension with the same norm. Then, $f - g$ vanishes on $c_0$. However, there must be $hat x in ell^infty$ with
        $$(f-g)(hat x) = 1.$$



        Even more, let $T_n$ be the operator that sets the first elements of a sequence to zero. Then,
        $$(f-g)(T_n hat x) = (f-g)(hat x) = 1.$$
        However, $g(T_n hat x) to 0$ and, thus, $f(T_n hat x) to 1$.
        Finally, we consider for $k in mathbb N$ the sequence $z_k$ with entries
        $$
        (z_k)_n
        =
        begin{cases}
        K,operatorname{sign}(y_n)& text{for } n < k, \
        hat x_n&text{else},
        end{cases}
        $$

        Where $K = |hat x|_{ell^infty}$.
        Then,
        $$f(z_k) to K , | y |_{ell^1} + 1.$$
        However, $|z_k|_{ell^infty} le K$. This contradicts that $|f|_{X^star} = |y|_{ell^1}$.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        It is clear that $y^*$ can be identified with $y in ell^1$ and this generates the functional
        $g : x mapsto sum_{i = 1}^infty x_i y_i$
        for $x in ell^infty$.



        Now, suppose that $f in X^*$ is a different extension with the same norm. Then, $f - g$ vanishes on $c_0$. However, there must be $hat x in ell^infty$ with
        $$(f-g)(hat x) = 1.$$



        Even more, let $T_n$ be the operator that sets the first elements of a sequence to zero. Then,
        $$(f-g)(T_n hat x) = (f-g)(hat x) = 1.$$
        However, $g(T_n hat x) to 0$ and, thus, $f(T_n hat x) to 1$.
        Finally, we consider for $k in mathbb N$ the sequence $z_k$ with entries
        $$
        (z_k)_n
        =
        begin{cases}
        K,operatorname{sign}(y_n)& text{for } n < k, \
        hat x_n&text{else},
        end{cases}
        $$

        Where $K = |hat x|_{ell^infty}$.
        Then,
        $$f(z_k) to K , | y |_{ell^1} + 1.$$
        However, $|z_k|_{ell^infty} le K$. This contradicts that $|f|_{X^star} = |y|_{ell^1}$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Nov 24 at 18:01









        gerw

        18.8k11133




        18.8k11133






























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