Integrating using inverse functions
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Someone the other day told me about the idea of evaluating integrals using horizontal instead of vertical bars (apparently something to do with Lebesque integration but thats way too complicated for me to understand). So I was thinking about this and it occurred to me that and inverse function flips a function that in a way taking its integral is taking the original integral but horizontally. This then lead me to come up with 2 identities I'm not sure are correct and I established graphically.
$$ int_0^xf(x)dx=xf(x)-int_{f(0)}^{f(x)}f^{-1}(x)dx$$
or
$$ int f(x)dx=xf(x)-int f^{-1}(f(x))df(x)$$
although I'm not sure if the second is valid notation but I think I've seen something like that written before somewhere. These are only valid in ranges where $f(x)$ is bijective. For example:
$$begin{align}
int arcsin(x)dx &=xarcsin(x)-int sin(arcsin(x)d(arcsin(x))\
& = xarcsin(x)+cos(arcsin(x)) \
& = xarcsin(x)+sqrt{1-x^2} end{align}$$
is only valid for $-1 le xle 1$ which would be true anyway but would also be true if we evaluated the integral of $sin(x)$ this way giving a range of $-frac{pi}{2}le xle frac{pi}{2}$ where the integral is valid. Having done a bit of reading around the subject of integrals I am sort of surprised why this is never taught as it makes some integrals incredibly easy even though they may already be possible. I just think it would be another tool in the arsenal of mathematicians, that I never see used. $$$$
tl;dr: is the identity valid and if so why is it never taught?
calculus integration inverse-function
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up vote
2
down vote
favorite
Someone the other day told me about the idea of evaluating integrals using horizontal instead of vertical bars (apparently something to do with Lebesque integration but thats way too complicated for me to understand). So I was thinking about this and it occurred to me that and inverse function flips a function that in a way taking its integral is taking the original integral but horizontally. This then lead me to come up with 2 identities I'm not sure are correct and I established graphically.
$$ int_0^xf(x)dx=xf(x)-int_{f(0)}^{f(x)}f^{-1}(x)dx$$
or
$$ int f(x)dx=xf(x)-int f^{-1}(f(x))df(x)$$
although I'm not sure if the second is valid notation but I think I've seen something like that written before somewhere. These are only valid in ranges where $f(x)$ is bijective. For example:
$$begin{align}
int arcsin(x)dx &=xarcsin(x)-int sin(arcsin(x)d(arcsin(x))\
& = xarcsin(x)+cos(arcsin(x)) \
& = xarcsin(x)+sqrt{1-x^2} end{align}$$
is only valid for $-1 le xle 1$ which would be true anyway but would also be true if we evaluated the integral of $sin(x)$ this way giving a range of $-frac{pi}{2}le xle frac{pi}{2}$ where the integral is valid. Having done a bit of reading around the subject of integrals I am sort of surprised why this is never taught as it makes some integrals incredibly easy even though they may already be possible. I just think it would be another tool in the arsenal of mathematicians, that I never see used. $$$$
tl;dr: is the identity valid and if so why is it never taught?
calculus integration inverse-function
This technique is described as the integral of inverse functions (en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Integral_of_inverse_functions) . You may be interested in the historical note of this article.
– Paul Enta
Nov 25 at 20:55
add a comment |
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
Someone the other day told me about the idea of evaluating integrals using horizontal instead of vertical bars (apparently something to do with Lebesque integration but thats way too complicated for me to understand). So I was thinking about this and it occurred to me that and inverse function flips a function that in a way taking its integral is taking the original integral but horizontally. This then lead me to come up with 2 identities I'm not sure are correct and I established graphically.
$$ int_0^xf(x)dx=xf(x)-int_{f(0)}^{f(x)}f^{-1}(x)dx$$
or
$$ int f(x)dx=xf(x)-int f^{-1}(f(x))df(x)$$
although I'm not sure if the second is valid notation but I think I've seen something like that written before somewhere. These are only valid in ranges where $f(x)$ is bijective. For example:
$$begin{align}
int arcsin(x)dx &=xarcsin(x)-int sin(arcsin(x)d(arcsin(x))\
& = xarcsin(x)+cos(arcsin(x)) \
& = xarcsin(x)+sqrt{1-x^2} end{align}$$
is only valid for $-1 le xle 1$ which would be true anyway but would also be true if we evaluated the integral of $sin(x)$ this way giving a range of $-frac{pi}{2}le xle frac{pi}{2}$ where the integral is valid. Having done a bit of reading around the subject of integrals I am sort of surprised why this is never taught as it makes some integrals incredibly easy even though they may already be possible. I just think it would be another tool in the arsenal of mathematicians, that I never see used. $$$$
tl;dr: is the identity valid and if so why is it never taught?
calculus integration inverse-function
Someone the other day told me about the idea of evaluating integrals using horizontal instead of vertical bars (apparently something to do with Lebesque integration but thats way too complicated for me to understand). So I was thinking about this and it occurred to me that and inverse function flips a function that in a way taking its integral is taking the original integral but horizontally. This then lead me to come up with 2 identities I'm not sure are correct and I established graphically.
$$ int_0^xf(x)dx=xf(x)-int_{f(0)}^{f(x)}f^{-1}(x)dx$$
or
$$ int f(x)dx=xf(x)-int f^{-1}(f(x))df(x)$$
although I'm not sure if the second is valid notation but I think I've seen something like that written before somewhere. These are only valid in ranges where $f(x)$ is bijective. For example:
$$begin{align}
int arcsin(x)dx &=xarcsin(x)-int sin(arcsin(x)d(arcsin(x))\
& = xarcsin(x)+cos(arcsin(x)) \
& = xarcsin(x)+sqrt{1-x^2} end{align}$$
is only valid for $-1 le xle 1$ which would be true anyway but would also be true if we evaluated the integral of $sin(x)$ this way giving a range of $-frac{pi}{2}le xle frac{pi}{2}$ where the integral is valid. Having done a bit of reading around the subject of integrals I am sort of surprised why this is never taught as it makes some integrals incredibly easy even though they may already be possible. I just think it would be another tool in the arsenal of mathematicians, that I never see used. $$$$
tl;dr: is the identity valid and if so why is it never taught?
calculus integration inverse-function
calculus integration inverse-function
asked Nov 25 at 14:45
Tom Hickson
484
484
This technique is described as the integral of inverse functions (en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Integral_of_inverse_functions) . You may be interested in the historical note of this article.
– Paul Enta
Nov 25 at 20:55
add a comment |
This technique is described as the integral of inverse functions (en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Integral_of_inverse_functions) . You may be interested in the historical note of this article.
– Paul Enta
Nov 25 at 20:55
This technique is described as the integral of inverse functions (en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Integral_of_inverse_functions) . You may be interested in the historical note of this article.
– Paul Enta
Nov 25 at 20:55
This technique is described as the integral of inverse functions (en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Integral_of_inverse_functions) . You may be interested in the historical note of this article.
– Paul Enta
Nov 25 at 20:55
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
Here's a little proof. Hopefully this helps.
$$I(x):=int_0^x f^{-1}(a)mathrm{d}a$$
Substitution $a=f(b)$:
$$therefore I(x)=int_{f^{-1}(0)}^{f^{-1}(x)}bf'(b)mathrm{d}b$$
Integration by parts:
$$mathrm{d}v=f'(b)mathrm{d}bRightarrow v=f(b)\u=bRightarrow mathrm{d}u=mathrm{d}b$$
$$therefore I(x)=bf(b)bigg|_{f^{-1}(0)}^{f^{-1}(x)}-int_{f^{-1}(0)}^{f^{-1}(x)}f(b)mathrm{d}b$$
$$therefore I(x)=xf^{-1}(x)-int_{f^{-1}(0)}^{f^{-1}(x)}f(b)mathrm{d}b$$
$$therefore int_0^x f^{-1}(t)mathrm{d}t=xf^{-1}(x)-int_{f^{-1}(0)}^{f^{-1}(x)}f(t)mathrm{d}t$$
QED
Example:
$$I=intarcsin x mathrm{d}x$$
setting $f^{-1}(x)=arcsin x$ gives $f(x)=sin x$, and $F(x)=int f(x)mathrm{d}x=-cos x$. We know that
$$I=xf^{-1}(x)-(Fcirc f^{-1})(x)+C$$
Which gives:
$$I=xarcsin x-(-cos(arcsin x))+C$$
$$I=xarcsin x+cosarcsin x+C$$
Note the following:
$$alpha=arcsin x$$
$$therefore sinalpha=x$$
Recall and apply the Pythagorean identity: $cos^2alpha=1-sin^2alpha$
$$therefore cosalpha=sqrt{1-x^2}$$
Plug it in:
$$I=xarcsin x+sqrt{1-x^2}+C$$
You got it!
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
Here's a little proof. Hopefully this helps.
$$I(x):=int_0^x f^{-1}(a)mathrm{d}a$$
Substitution $a=f(b)$:
$$therefore I(x)=int_{f^{-1}(0)}^{f^{-1}(x)}bf'(b)mathrm{d}b$$
Integration by parts:
$$mathrm{d}v=f'(b)mathrm{d}bRightarrow v=f(b)\u=bRightarrow mathrm{d}u=mathrm{d}b$$
$$therefore I(x)=bf(b)bigg|_{f^{-1}(0)}^{f^{-1}(x)}-int_{f^{-1}(0)}^{f^{-1}(x)}f(b)mathrm{d}b$$
$$therefore I(x)=xf^{-1}(x)-int_{f^{-1}(0)}^{f^{-1}(x)}f(b)mathrm{d}b$$
$$therefore int_0^x f^{-1}(t)mathrm{d}t=xf^{-1}(x)-int_{f^{-1}(0)}^{f^{-1}(x)}f(t)mathrm{d}t$$
QED
Example:
$$I=intarcsin x mathrm{d}x$$
setting $f^{-1}(x)=arcsin x$ gives $f(x)=sin x$, and $F(x)=int f(x)mathrm{d}x=-cos x$. We know that
$$I=xf^{-1}(x)-(Fcirc f^{-1})(x)+C$$
Which gives:
$$I=xarcsin x-(-cos(arcsin x))+C$$
$$I=xarcsin x+cosarcsin x+C$$
Note the following:
$$alpha=arcsin x$$
$$therefore sinalpha=x$$
Recall and apply the Pythagorean identity: $cos^2alpha=1-sin^2alpha$
$$therefore cosalpha=sqrt{1-x^2}$$
Plug it in:
$$I=xarcsin x+sqrt{1-x^2}+C$$
You got it!
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
Here's a little proof. Hopefully this helps.
$$I(x):=int_0^x f^{-1}(a)mathrm{d}a$$
Substitution $a=f(b)$:
$$therefore I(x)=int_{f^{-1}(0)}^{f^{-1}(x)}bf'(b)mathrm{d}b$$
Integration by parts:
$$mathrm{d}v=f'(b)mathrm{d}bRightarrow v=f(b)\u=bRightarrow mathrm{d}u=mathrm{d}b$$
$$therefore I(x)=bf(b)bigg|_{f^{-1}(0)}^{f^{-1}(x)}-int_{f^{-1}(0)}^{f^{-1}(x)}f(b)mathrm{d}b$$
$$therefore I(x)=xf^{-1}(x)-int_{f^{-1}(0)}^{f^{-1}(x)}f(b)mathrm{d}b$$
$$therefore int_0^x f^{-1}(t)mathrm{d}t=xf^{-1}(x)-int_{f^{-1}(0)}^{f^{-1}(x)}f(t)mathrm{d}t$$
QED
Example:
$$I=intarcsin x mathrm{d}x$$
setting $f^{-1}(x)=arcsin x$ gives $f(x)=sin x$, and $F(x)=int f(x)mathrm{d}x=-cos x$. We know that
$$I=xf^{-1}(x)-(Fcirc f^{-1})(x)+C$$
Which gives:
$$I=xarcsin x-(-cos(arcsin x))+C$$
$$I=xarcsin x+cosarcsin x+C$$
Note the following:
$$alpha=arcsin x$$
$$therefore sinalpha=x$$
Recall and apply the Pythagorean identity: $cos^2alpha=1-sin^2alpha$
$$therefore cosalpha=sqrt{1-x^2}$$
Plug it in:
$$I=xarcsin x+sqrt{1-x^2}+C$$
You got it!
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
Here's a little proof. Hopefully this helps.
$$I(x):=int_0^x f^{-1}(a)mathrm{d}a$$
Substitution $a=f(b)$:
$$therefore I(x)=int_{f^{-1}(0)}^{f^{-1}(x)}bf'(b)mathrm{d}b$$
Integration by parts:
$$mathrm{d}v=f'(b)mathrm{d}bRightarrow v=f(b)\u=bRightarrow mathrm{d}u=mathrm{d}b$$
$$therefore I(x)=bf(b)bigg|_{f^{-1}(0)}^{f^{-1}(x)}-int_{f^{-1}(0)}^{f^{-1}(x)}f(b)mathrm{d}b$$
$$therefore I(x)=xf^{-1}(x)-int_{f^{-1}(0)}^{f^{-1}(x)}f(b)mathrm{d}b$$
$$therefore int_0^x f^{-1}(t)mathrm{d}t=xf^{-1}(x)-int_{f^{-1}(0)}^{f^{-1}(x)}f(t)mathrm{d}t$$
QED
Example:
$$I=intarcsin x mathrm{d}x$$
setting $f^{-1}(x)=arcsin x$ gives $f(x)=sin x$, and $F(x)=int f(x)mathrm{d}x=-cos x$. We know that
$$I=xf^{-1}(x)-(Fcirc f^{-1})(x)+C$$
Which gives:
$$I=xarcsin x-(-cos(arcsin x))+C$$
$$I=xarcsin x+cosarcsin x+C$$
Note the following:
$$alpha=arcsin x$$
$$therefore sinalpha=x$$
Recall and apply the Pythagorean identity: $cos^2alpha=1-sin^2alpha$
$$therefore cosalpha=sqrt{1-x^2}$$
Plug it in:
$$I=xarcsin x+sqrt{1-x^2}+C$$
You got it!
Here's a little proof. Hopefully this helps.
$$I(x):=int_0^x f^{-1}(a)mathrm{d}a$$
Substitution $a=f(b)$:
$$therefore I(x)=int_{f^{-1}(0)}^{f^{-1}(x)}bf'(b)mathrm{d}b$$
Integration by parts:
$$mathrm{d}v=f'(b)mathrm{d}bRightarrow v=f(b)\u=bRightarrow mathrm{d}u=mathrm{d}b$$
$$therefore I(x)=bf(b)bigg|_{f^{-1}(0)}^{f^{-1}(x)}-int_{f^{-1}(0)}^{f^{-1}(x)}f(b)mathrm{d}b$$
$$therefore I(x)=xf^{-1}(x)-int_{f^{-1}(0)}^{f^{-1}(x)}f(b)mathrm{d}b$$
$$therefore int_0^x f^{-1}(t)mathrm{d}t=xf^{-1}(x)-int_{f^{-1}(0)}^{f^{-1}(x)}f(t)mathrm{d}t$$
QED
Example:
$$I=intarcsin x mathrm{d}x$$
setting $f^{-1}(x)=arcsin x$ gives $f(x)=sin x$, and $F(x)=int f(x)mathrm{d}x=-cos x$. We know that
$$I=xf^{-1}(x)-(Fcirc f^{-1})(x)+C$$
Which gives:
$$I=xarcsin x-(-cos(arcsin x))+C$$
$$I=xarcsin x+cosarcsin x+C$$
Note the following:
$$alpha=arcsin x$$
$$therefore sinalpha=x$$
Recall and apply the Pythagorean identity: $cos^2alpha=1-sin^2alpha$
$$therefore cosalpha=sqrt{1-x^2}$$
Plug it in:
$$I=xarcsin x+sqrt{1-x^2}+C$$
You got it!
edited Nov 27 at 5:33
answered Nov 27 at 5:21
clathratus
2,298322
2,298322
add a comment |
add a comment |
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This technique is described as the integral of inverse functions (en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Integral_of_inverse_functions) . You may be interested in the historical note of this article.
– Paul Enta
Nov 25 at 20:55