Quick question regarding the Lebesgue's Dominated Convergence Theorem











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I'm reading Rudin's Real and Complex Analysis book. In the statement where we require $$|f_n(x)| le g(x)$$ for all $n$. Could this be relaxed to all, but finitely many $n$? I was looking at his proof and couldn't find any reason why not, but I thought I go ahead and ask to make sure.










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  • Yes, absolutely, since the statement of the theorem is concerned with limits, which "only care" about the $f_{n}$ after a certain $n_{0}$.
    – Matija Sreckovic
    Nov 25 at 13:42








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    I think so too.. just paranoid sometimes :)
    – daniel
    Nov 25 at 13:44















up vote
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I'm reading Rudin's Real and Complex Analysis book. In the statement where we require $$|f_n(x)| le g(x)$$ for all $n$. Could this be relaxed to all, but finitely many $n$? I was looking at his proof and couldn't find any reason why not, but I thought I go ahead and ask to make sure.










share|cite|improve this question






















  • Yes, absolutely, since the statement of the theorem is concerned with limits, which "only care" about the $f_{n}$ after a certain $n_{0}$.
    – Matija Sreckovic
    Nov 25 at 13:42








  • 1




    I think so too.. just paranoid sometimes :)
    – daniel
    Nov 25 at 13:44













up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











I'm reading Rudin's Real and Complex Analysis book. In the statement where we require $$|f_n(x)| le g(x)$$ for all $n$. Could this be relaxed to all, but finitely many $n$? I was looking at his proof and couldn't find any reason why not, but I thought I go ahead and ask to make sure.










share|cite|improve this question













I'm reading Rudin's Real and Complex Analysis book. In the statement where we require $$|f_n(x)| le g(x)$$ for all $n$. Could this be relaxed to all, but finitely many $n$? I was looking at his proof and couldn't find any reason why not, but I thought I go ahead and ask to make sure.







measure-theory lebesgue-integral






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asked Nov 25 at 13:39









daniel

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463












  • Yes, absolutely, since the statement of the theorem is concerned with limits, which "only care" about the $f_{n}$ after a certain $n_{0}$.
    – Matija Sreckovic
    Nov 25 at 13:42








  • 1




    I think so too.. just paranoid sometimes :)
    – daniel
    Nov 25 at 13:44


















  • Yes, absolutely, since the statement of the theorem is concerned with limits, which "only care" about the $f_{n}$ after a certain $n_{0}$.
    – Matija Sreckovic
    Nov 25 at 13:42








  • 1




    I think so too.. just paranoid sometimes :)
    – daniel
    Nov 25 at 13:44
















Yes, absolutely, since the statement of the theorem is concerned with limits, which "only care" about the $f_{n}$ after a certain $n_{0}$.
– Matija Sreckovic
Nov 25 at 13:42






Yes, absolutely, since the statement of the theorem is concerned with limits, which "only care" about the $f_{n}$ after a certain $n_{0}$.
– Matija Sreckovic
Nov 25 at 13:42






1




1




I think so too.. just paranoid sometimes :)
– daniel
Nov 25 at 13:44




I think so too.. just paranoid sometimes :)
– daniel
Nov 25 at 13:44










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Of course you can. If $|f_n(x)|leq g(x)$ for $n> N$, you may throw away first $N$ terms since it does not affect the limit. If $f_n in L^1$ for all $n$, you may take $$
g' = g + |f_1| +cdots + |f_{N}|$$
as a majorant explicitly.

Note: Actually, condition of single majorant $g$ can be replaced with existence of $L^1$-sequence ${g_n, g }$ such that $|f_n| leq g_n$, $|lim_n f_n|leq g$, and $int g_n dmuto int gdmu.$






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    Of course you can. If $|f_n(x)|leq g(x)$ for $n> N$, you may throw away first $N$ terms since it does not affect the limit. If $f_n in L^1$ for all $n$, you may take $$
    g' = g + |f_1| +cdots + |f_{N}|$$
    as a majorant explicitly.

    Note: Actually, condition of single majorant $g$ can be replaced with existence of $L^1$-sequence ${g_n, g }$ such that $|f_n| leq g_n$, $|lim_n f_n|leq g$, and $int g_n dmuto int gdmu.$






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      up vote
      1
      down vote













      Of course you can. If $|f_n(x)|leq g(x)$ for $n> N$, you may throw away first $N$ terms since it does not affect the limit. If $f_n in L^1$ for all $n$, you may take $$
      g' = g + |f_1| +cdots + |f_{N}|$$
      as a majorant explicitly.

      Note: Actually, condition of single majorant $g$ can be replaced with existence of $L^1$-sequence ${g_n, g }$ such that $|f_n| leq g_n$, $|lim_n f_n|leq g$, and $int g_n dmuto int gdmu.$






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        up vote
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        Of course you can. If $|f_n(x)|leq g(x)$ for $n> N$, you may throw away first $N$ terms since it does not affect the limit. If $f_n in L^1$ for all $n$, you may take $$
        g' = g + |f_1| +cdots + |f_{N}|$$
        as a majorant explicitly.

        Note: Actually, condition of single majorant $g$ can be replaced with existence of $L^1$-sequence ${g_n, g }$ such that $|f_n| leq g_n$, $|lim_n f_n|leq g$, and $int g_n dmuto int gdmu.$






        share|cite|improve this answer














        Of course you can. If $|f_n(x)|leq g(x)$ for $n> N$, you may throw away first $N$ terms since it does not affect the limit. If $f_n in L^1$ for all $n$, you may take $$
        g' = g + |f_1| +cdots + |f_{N}|$$
        as a majorant explicitly.

        Note: Actually, condition of single majorant $g$ can be replaced with existence of $L^1$-sequence ${g_n, g }$ such that $|f_n| leq g_n$, $|lim_n f_n|leq g$, and $int g_n dmuto int gdmu.$







        share|cite|improve this answer














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        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Nov 25 at 13:53

























        answered Nov 25 at 13:46









        Song

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