Show the series $sumlimits^{infty}_{n=1}{frac{a_n}{n}}$ converges
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Suppose the sequence ${a_n}_{n=1}^{infty}$ satisfies
$$midsumlimits^{n}_{k=1}{a_{k}}midleq Csqrt{n} spacespacespacespacespacespacespacespacespacespacespacespacespacespacespace n=1, 2, 3, cdots$$
where $C$ is a fixed (but arbitrary) number. Prove that the series
$$sumlimits^{infty}_{n=1}{frac{a_n}{n}}$$
converges.
My attempt: Suppose $b_n:= frac{1}{n}$; Abel's lemma on summation by parts gives
$$sumlimits^{k}_{n=1}{frac{a_n}{n}}=sumlimits^{k-1}_{n=1}{[sumlimits_{i=1}^{n}{a_i}cdot(b_n-b_{n+1})] + sumlimits_{i=1}^{k}{a_i}cdot b_k}$$
$$<sumlimits^{k-1}_{n=1}{midsumlimits_{i=1}^{n}{a_i}midcdot(b_n-b_{n+1}) +mid sumlimits_{i=1}^{k}{a_i}mid cdot b_k}$$
$$lesumlimits_{n=1}^{k}[Csqrt{n}cdot{(frac{1}{n}-frac{1}{n+1}})]+Csqrt{k}cdot frac{1}{k+1}$$
$$=sumlimits_{n=1}^{k}{frac{Csqrt{n}}{n(n+1)}}+frac{Csqrt{k}}{k+1}.$$
Since $krightarrowinfty$, therefore
$$frac{Csqrt{k}}{k+1}rightarrow 0.$$
Moreover, for the sigma notation, since
$$frac{Csqrt{n}}{n(n+1)}<frac{Csqrt{n}}{n^2}=frac{C}{n^frac{3}{2}}$$
Above is a $p$-series with $p=frac{3}{2}>1$, hence the series $sumlimits_{n=1}^{k}{frac{Csqrt{n}}{n(n+1)}}$ converges. Even though $sumlimits_{n=1}^{k}{frac{Csqrt{n}}{n(n+1)}}$ converges and $frac{Csqrt{k}}{k+1}$ approaches to $0$ for $krightarrowinfty$, but they do not imply the series $sumlimits^{infty}_{n=1}{frac{a_n}{n}}$ converges.
My proof seems not yet completed. How do I continue it?
sequences-and-series proof-verification convergence
add a comment |
up vote
4
down vote
favorite
Suppose the sequence ${a_n}_{n=1}^{infty}$ satisfies
$$midsumlimits^{n}_{k=1}{a_{k}}midleq Csqrt{n} spacespacespacespacespacespacespacespacespacespacespacespacespacespacespace n=1, 2, 3, cdots$$
where $C$ is a fixed (but arbitrary) number. Prove that the series
$$sumlimits^{infty}_{n=1}{frac{a_n}{n}}$$
converges.
My attempt: Suppose $b_n:= frac{1}{n}$; Abel's lemma on summation by parts gives
$$sumlimits^{k}_{n=1}{frac{a_n}{n}}=sumlimits^{k-1}_{n=1}{[sumlimits_{i=1}^{n}{a_i}cdot(b_n-b_{n+1})] + sumlimits_{i=1}^{k}{a_i}cdot b_k}$$
$$<sumlimits^{k-1}_{n=1}{midsumlimits_{i=1}^{n}{a_i}midcdot(b_n-b_{n+1}) +mid sumlimits_{i=1}^{k}{a_i}mid cdot b_k}$$
$$lesumlimits_{n=1}^{k}[Csqrt{n}cdot{(frac{1}{n}-frac{1}{n+1}})]+Csqrt{k}cdot frac{1}{k+1}$$
$$=sumlimits_{n=1}^{k}{frac{Csqrt{n}}{n(n+1)}}+frac{Csqrt{k}}{k+1}.$$
Since $krightarrowinfty$, therefore
$$frac{Csqrt{k}}{k+1}rightarrow 0.$$
Moreover, for the sigma notation, since
$$frac{Csqrt{n}}{n(n+1)}<frac{Csqrt{n}}{n^2}=frac{C}{n^frac{3}{2}}$$
Above is a $p$-series with $p=frac{3}{2}>1$, hence the series $sumlimits_{n=1}^{k}{frac{Csqrt{n}}{n(n+1)}}$ converges. Even though $sumlimits_{n=1}^{k}{frac{Csqrt{n}}{n(n+1)}}$ converges and $frac{Csqrt{k}}{k+1}$ approaches to $0$ for $krightarrowinfty$, but they do not imply the series $sumlimits^{infty}_{n=1}{frac{a_n}{n}}$ converges.
My proof seems not yet completed. How do I continue it?
sequences-and-series proof-verification convergence
You switch between $k$ and $n$ in your solution, you should fix that.
– Jakobian
Nov 22 at 14:50
I had edited it. Thanks for pointing my mistake.
– weilam06
Nov 22 at 15:02
add a comment |
up vote
4
down vote
favorite
up vote
4
down vote
favorite
Suppose the sequence ${a_n}_{n=1}^{infty}$ satisfies
$$midsumlimits^{n}_{k=1}{a_{k}}midleq Csqrt{n} spacespacespacespacespacespacespacespacespacespacespacespacespacespacespace n=1, 2, 3, cdots$$
where $C$ is a fixed (but arbitrary) number. Prove that the series
$$sumlimits^{infty}_{n=1}{frac{a_n}{n}}$$
converges.
My attempt: Suppose $b_n:= frac{1}{n}$; Abel's lemma on summation by parts gives
$$sumlimits^{k}_{n=1}{frac{a_n}{n}}=sumlimits^{k-1}_{n=1}{[sumlimits_{i=1}^{n}{a_i}cdot(b_n-b_{n+1})] + sumlimits_{i=1}^{k}{a_i}cdot b_k}$$
$$<sumlimits^{k-1}_{n=1}{midsumlimits_{i=1}^{n}{a_i}midcdot(b_n-b_{n+1}) +mid sumlimits_{i=1}^{k}{a_i}mid cdot b_k}$$
$$lesumlimits_{n=1}^{k}[Csqrt{n}cdot{(frac{1}{n}-frac{1}{n+1}})]+Csqrt{k}cdot frac{1}{k+1}$$
$$=sumlimits_{n=1}^{k}{frac{Csqrt{n}}{n(n+1)}}+frac{Csqrt{k}}{k+1}.$$
Since $krightarrowinfty$, therefore
$$frac{Csqrt{k}}{k+1}rightarrow 0.$$
Moreover, for the sigma notation, since
$$frac{Csqrt{n}}{n(n+1)}<frac{Csqrt{n}}{n^2}=frac{C}{n^frac{3}{2}}$$
Above is a $p$-series with $p=frac{3}{2}>1$, hence the series $sumlimits_{n=1}^{k}{frac{Csqrt{n}}{n(n+1)}}$ converges. Even though $sumlimits_{n=1}^{k}{frac{Csqrt{n}}{n(n+1)}}$ converges and $frac{Csqrt{k}}{k+1}$ approaches to $0$ for $krightarrowinfty$, but they do not imply the series $sumlimits^{infty}_{n=1}{frac{a_n}{n}}$ converges.
My proof seems not yet completed. How do I continue it?
sequences-and-series proof-verification convergence
Suppose the sequence ${a_n}_{n=1}^{infty}$ satisfies
$$midsumlimits^{n}_{k=1}{a_{k}}midleq Csqrt{n} spacespacespacespacespacespacespacespacespacespacespacespacespacespacespace n=1, 2, 3, cdots$$
where $C$ is a fixed (but arbitrary) number. Prove that the series
$$sumlimits^{infty}_{n=1}{frac{a_n}{n}}$$
converges.
My attempt: Suppose $b_n:= frac{1}{n}$; Abel's lemma on summation by parts gives
$$sumlimits^{k}_{n=1}{frac{a_n}{n}}=sumlimits^{k-1}_{n=1}{[sumlimits_{i=1}^{n}{a_i}cdot(b_n-b_{n+1})] + sumlimits_{i=1}^{k}{a_i}cdot b_k}$$
$$<sumlimits^{k-1}_{n=1}{midsumlimits_{i=1}^{n}{a_i}midcdot(b_n-b_{n+1}) +mid sumlimits_{i=1}^{k}{a_i}mid cdot b_k}$$
$$lesumlimits_{n=1}^{k}[Csqrt{n}cdot{(frac{1}{n}-frac{1}{n+1}})]+Csqrt{k}cdot frac{1}{k+1}$$
$$=sumlimits_{n=1}^{k}{frac{Csqrt{n}}{n(n+1)}}+frac{Csqrt{k}}{k+1}.$$
Since $krightarrowinfty$, therefore
$$frac{Csqrt{k}}{k+1}rightarrow 0.$$
Moreover, for the sigma notation, since
$$frac{Csqrt{n}}{n(n+1)}<frac{Csqrt{n}}{n^2}=frac{C}{n^frac{3}{2}}$$
Above is a $p$-series with $p=frac{3}{2}>1$, hence the series $sumlimits_{n=1}^{k}{frac{Csqrt{n}}{n(n+1)}}$ converges. Even though $sumlimits_{n=1}^{k}{frac{Csqrt{n}}{n(n+1)}}$ converges and $frac{Csqrt{k}}{k+1}$ approaches to $0$ for $krightarrowinfty$, but they do not imply the series $sumlimits^{infty}_{n=1}{frac{a_n}{n}}$ converges.
My proof seems not yet completed. How do I continue it?
sequences-and-series proof-verification convergence
sequences-and-series proof-verification convergence
edited Nov 22 at 17:39
Martin Sleziak
44.4k7115268
44.4k7115268
asked Nov 22 at 14:41
weilam06
566
566
You switch between $k$ and $n$ in your solution, you should fix that.
– Jakobian
Nov 22 at 14:50
I had edited it. Thanks for pointing my mistake.
– weilam06
Nov 22 at 15:02
add a comment |
You switch between $k$ and $n$ in your solution, you should fix that.
– Jakobian
Nov 22 at 14:50
I had edited it. Thanks for pointing my mistake.
– weilam06
Nov 22 at 15:02
You switch between $k$ and $n$ in your solution, you should fix that.
– Jakobian
Nov 22 at 14:50
You switch between $k$ and $n$ in your solution, you should fix that.
– Jakobian
Nov 22 at 14:50
I had edited it. Thanks for pointing my mistake.
– weilam06
Nov 22 at 15:02
I had edited it. Thanks for pointing my mistake.
– weilam06
Nov 22 at 15:02
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
Let
$$
s_n=sum_{k=1}^na_n
$$
then $|s_n|le Csqrt{n}$ and
$$
begin{align}
sum_{k=1}^nfrac{a_k}k
&=sum_{k=1}^nfrac{s_k-s_{k-1}}k\
&=sum_{k=1}^nfrac{s_k}k-sum_{k=0}^{n-1}frac{s_k}{k+1}\
&=sum_{k=1}^ns_kleft(frac1k-frac1{k+1}right)+frac{s_n}{n+1}\
&=sum_{k=1}^nunderbrace{frac{s_k}{k(k+1)}}_{le Cfrac{sqrt{k}}{k^2}}+underbrace{ frac{s_n}{n+1} }_{le Cfrac{sqrt{n}}{nvphantom{k^2}}}
end{align}
$$
The sum converges and the extra term vanishes.
Comment brought into the answer
Since it does clarify the answer, I will bring the following comment into the answer.
The sequence of partial sums $sumlimits_{k=1}^nfrac{a_k}k$ is the same as the sequence $sumlimits_{k=1}^nfrac{s_k}{k(k+1)}+frac{s_n}{n+1}$ the latter sum converges absolutely, hence the partial sums are Cauchy and the extra term converges to $0$ hence it is Cauchy. The sum of two Cauchy sequences is Cauchy. Since the original sequence of partial sums is Cauchy, it converges.
You only prove an upper bound for $|sum_{k=1}^n frac{a_k}{k}|$. The right-way to prove the convergence is to show that $sum_{k=1}^infty frac{a_k}{k}$ is a Cauchy-sequence!
– p4sch
Nov 22 at 14:56
Not exactly. Robjohn showed that the series converges absolutely.
– Jakobian
Nov 22 at 15:06
No, he didnt proved that the series converges absolutely! In general, it is false! Counterexample: $a_n = (-1)^n$! Problem: We dont have a bound for $sum_{k=1}^n |a_k|$ only for $sum_{k=1}^n a_k$.
– p4sch
Nov 22 at 15:07
@p4sch: the series in the last line converges absolutely by comparison to $sum k^{-3/2}$. That that series converges shows that the sequence of partial sums is Cauchy, and the series of partial sums are the same,
– robjohn♦
Nov 22 at 15:10
As I already said, you only prove that the sequence $(sum_{k=1}^n a_k/k)_{n in mathbb{N}}$ is bounded. Of course, this argument can be adapted in order to prove that this sequence is Cauchy! However, your answer doesn't prove convergence!
– p4sch
Nov 22 at 15:13
|
show 2 more comments
up vote
1
down vote
In order to prove the convergence, it is enough to show that this sequence is a Cauchy-sequence (another way to prove the convergence is given by robjohn), because $mathbb{R}$, resp. $mathbb{C}$ is complete. Write $A_k := sum_{i=1}^k a_i$ and $B_k := sum_{i=1}^k a_i/i$. Note that $a_k = A_{k} - A_{k-1}$ Then for $n>m$
begin{align}
|B_n - B_m| = left| sum_{i=m+1}^n frac{a_i}{i} right| &= left| sum_{i=m+1}^n frac{A_i -A_{i-1}}{i} right| \
& = frac{|A_m|}{m+1} + frac{|A_n|}{n} + left| sum_{i=m+1}^{n-1} A_i left(frac{1}{i} - frac{1}{i-1} right) right|
end{align}
Since $(i^{-1}-(i-1)^{-1})= -(i(i-1))^{-1}$ Now we can use the bound to get the bound
$$frac{2C}{sqrt{m}}+ C sum_{i=m+1}^{n-1} frac{1}{(i-1) sqrt{i}}.$$
The last sum can be estimated by $int_{m-1}^infty frac{1}{x^{3/2}} d x < frac{3}{2} (m-1)^{-1/2}.$ All in all, we see that $$|B_n-B_m| le frac{3C}{(m-1)^{1/2}},$$
i.e. this is a Cauchy-sequence as claimed.
Note that this argument works also if we only require that $$|sum_{k=1}^n a_k| le C n^{1-varepsilon}.$$
Moreover, we cannot expect that $sum_{k=1}^infty a_k/k$ converges absolutely. Just take $a_k = (-1)^k$, then $$|sum_{k=1}^n a_k| le 1 le sqrt{n},$$ but $$sum_{k=1}^infty frac{|a_k|}{k} = sum_{k=1}^infty frac{1}{k} =infty.$$
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
Let
$$
s_n=sum_{k=1}^na_n
$$
then $|s_n|le Csqrt{n}$ and
$$
begin{align}
sum_{k=1}^nfrac{a_k}k
&=sum_{k=1}^nfrac{s_k-s_{k-1}}k\
&=sum_{k=1}^nfrac{s_k}k-sum_{k=0}^{n-1}frac{s_k}{k+1}\
&=sum_{k=1}^ns_kleft(frac1k-frac1{k+1}right)+frac{s_n}{n+1}\
&=sum_{k=1}^nunderbrace{frac{s_k}{k(k+1)}}_{le Cfrac{sqrt{k}}{k^2}}+underbrace{ frac{s_n}{n+1} }_{le Cfrac{sqrt{n}}{nvphantom{k^2}}}
end{align}
$$
The sum converges and the extra term vanishes.
Comment brought into the answer
Since it does clarify the answer, I will bring the following comment into the answer.
The sequence of partial sums $sumlimits_{k=1}^nfrac{a_k}k$ is the same as the sequence $sumlimits_{k=1}^nfrac{s_k}{k(k+1)}+frac{s_n}{n+1}$ the latter sum converges absolutely, hence the partial sums are Cauchy and the extra term converges to $0$ hence it is Cauchy. The sum of two Cauchy sequences is Cauchy. Since the original sequence of partial sums is Cauchy, it converges.
You only prove an upper bound for $|sum_{k=1}^n frac{a_k}{k}|$. The right-way to prove the convergence is to show that $sum_{k=1}^infty frac{a_k}{k}$ is a Cauchy-sequence!
– p4sch
Nov 22 at 14:56
Not exactly. Robjohn showed that the series converges absolutely.
– Jakobian
Nov 22 at 15:06
No, he didnt proved that the series converges absolutely! In general, it is false! Counterexample: $a_n = (-1)^n$! Problem: We dont have a bound for $sum_{k=1}^n |a_k|$ only for $sum_{k=1}^n a_k$.
– p4sch
Nov 22 at 15:07
@p4sch: the series in the last line converges absolutely by comparison to $sum k^{-3/2}$. That that series converges shows that the sequence of partial sums is Cauchy, and the series of partial sums are the same,
– robjohn♦
Nov 22 at 15:10
As I already said, you only prove that the sequence $(sum_{k=1}^n a_k/k)_{n in mathbb{N}}$ is bounded. Of course, this argument can be adapted in order to prove that this sequence is Cauchy! However, your answer doesn't prove convergence!
– p4sch
Nov 22 at 15:13
|
show 2 more comments
up vote
2
down vote
Let
$$
s_n=sum_{k=1}^na_n
$$
then $|s_n|le Csqrt{n}$ and
$$
begin{align}
sum_{k=1}^nfrac{a_k}k
&=sum_{k=1}^nfrac{s_k-s_{k-1}}k\
&=sum_{k=1}^nfrac{s_k}k-sum_{k=0}^{n-1}frac{s_k}{k+1}\
&=sum_{k=1}^ns_kleft(frac1k-frac1{k+1}right)+frac{s_n}{n+1}\
&=sum_{k=1}^nunderbrace{frac{s_k}{k(k+1)}}_{le Cfrac{sqrt{k}}{k^2}}+underbrace{ frac{s_n}{n+1} }_{le Cfrac{sqrt{n}}{nvphantom{k^2}}}
end{align}
$$
The sum converges and the extra term vanishes.
Comment brought into the answer
Since it does clarify the answer, I will bring the following comment into the answer.
The sequence of partial sums $sumlimits_{k=1}^nfrac{a_k}k$ is the same as the sequence $sumlimits_{k=1}^nfrac{s_k}{k(k+1)}+frac{s_n}{n+1}$ the latter sum converges absolutely, hence the partial sums are Cauchy and the extra term converges to $0$ hence it is Cauchy. The sum of two Cauchy sequences is Cauchy. Since the original sequence of partial sums is Cauchy, it converges.
You only prove an upper bound for $|sum_{k=1}^n frac{a_k}{k}|$. The right-way to prove the convergence is to show that $sum_{k=1}^infty frac{a_k}{k}$ is a Cauchy-sequence!
– p4sch
Nov 22 at 14:56
Not exactly. Robjohn showed that the series converges absolutely.
– Jakobian
Nov 22 at 15:06
No, he didnt proved that the series converges absolutely! In general, it is false! Counterexample: $a_n = (-1)^n$! Problem: We dont have a bound for $sum_{k=1}^n |a_k|$ only for $sum_{k=1}^n a_k$.
– p4sch
Nov 22 at 15:07
@p4sch: the series in the last line converges absolutely by comparison to $sum k^{-3/2}$. That that series converges shows that the sequence of partial sums is Cauchy, and the series of partial sums are the same,
– robjohn♦
Nov 22 at 15:10
As I already said, you only prove that the sequence $(sum_{k=1}^n a_k/k)_{n in mathbb{N}}$ is bounded. Of course, this argument can be adapted in order to prove that this sequence is Cauchy! However, your answer doesn't prove convergence!
– p4sch
Nov 22 at 15:13
|
show 2 more comments
up vote
2
down vote
up vote
2
down vote
Let
$$
s_n=sum_{k=1}^na_n
$$
then $|s_n|le Csqrt{n}$ and
$$
begin{align}
sum_{k=1}^nfrac{a_k}k
&=sum_{k=1}^nfrac{s_k-s_{k-1}}k\
&=sum_{k=1}^nfrac{s_k}k-sum_{k=0}^{n-1}frac{s_k}{k+1}\
&=sum_{k=1}^ns_kleft(frac1k-frac1{k+1}right)+frac{s_n}{n+1}\
&=sum_{k=1}^nunderbrace{frac{s_k}{k(k+1)}}_{le Cfrac{sqrt{k}}{k^2}}+underbrace{ frac{s_n}{n+1} }_{le Cfrac{sqrt{n}}{nvphantom{k^2}}}
end{align}
$$
The sum converges and the extra term vanishes.
Comment brought into the answer
Since it does clarify the answer, I will bring the following comment into the answer.
The sequence of partial sums $sumlimits_{k=1}^nfrac{a_k}k$ is the same as the sequence $sumlimits_{k=1}^nfrac{s_k}{k(k+1)}+frac{s_n}{n+1}$ the latter sum converges absolutely, hence the partial sums are Cauchy and the extra term converges to $0$ hence it is Cauchy. The sum of two Cauchy sequences is Cauchy. Since the original sequence of partial sums is Cauchy, it converges.
Let
$$
s_n=sum_{k=1}^na_n
$$
then $|s_n|le Csqrt{n}$ and
$$
begin{align}
sum_{k=1}^nfrac{a_k}k
&=sum_{k=1}^nfrac{s_k-s_{k-1}}k\
&=sum_{k=1}^nfrac{s_k}k-sum_{k=0}^{n-1}frac{s_k}{k+1}\
&=sum_{k=1}^ns_kleft(frac1k-frac1{k+1}right)+frac{s_n}{n+1}\
&=sum_{k=1}^nunderbrace{frac{s_k}{k(k+1)}}_{le Cfrac{sqrt{k}}{k^2}}+underbrace{ frac{s_n}{n+1} }_{le Cfrac{sqrt{n}}{nvphantom{k^2}}}
end{align}
$$
The sum converges and the extra term vanishes.
Comment brought into the answer
Since it does clarify the answer, I will bring the following comment into the answer.
The sequence of partial sums $sumlimits_{k=1}^nfrac{a_k}k$ is the same as the sequence $sumlimits_{k=1}^nfrac{s_k}{k(k+1)}+frac{s_n}{n+1}$ the latter sum converges absolutely, hence the partial sums are Cauchy and the extra term converges to $0$ hence it is Cauchy. The sum of two Cauchy sequences is Cauchy. Since the original sequence of partial sums is Cauchy, it converges.
edited Nov 22 at 16:43
answered Nov 22 at 14:52
robjohn♦
263k27301621
263k27301621
You only prove an upper bound for $|sum_{k=1}^n frac{a_k}{k}|$. The right-way to prove the convergence is to show that $sum_{k=1}^infty frac{a_k}{k}$ is a Cauchy-sequence!
– p4sch
Nov 22 at 14:56
Not exactly. Robjohn showed that the series converges absolutely.
– Jakobian
Nov 22 at 15:06
No, he didnt proved that the series converges absolutely! In general, it is false! Counterexample: $a_n = (-1)^n$! Problem: We dont have a bound for $sum_{k=1}^n |a_k|$ only for $sum_{k=1}^n a_k$.
– p4sch
Nov 22 at 15:07
@p4sch: the series in the last line converges absolutely by comparison to $sum k^{-3/2}$. That that series converges shows that the sequence of partial sums is Cauchy, and the series of partial sums are the same,
– robjohn♦
Nov 22 at 15:10
As I already said, you only prove that the sequence $(sum_{k=1}^n a_k/k)_{n in mathbb{N}}$ is bounded. Of course, this argument can be adapted in order to prove that this sequence is Cauchy! However, your answer doesn't prove convergence!
– p4sch
Nov 22 at 15:13
|
show 2 more comments
You only prove an upper bound for $|sum_{k=1}^n frac{a_k}{k}|$. The right-way to prove the convergence is to show that $sum_{k=1}^infty frac{a_k}{k}$ is a Cauchy-sequence!
– p4sch
Nov 22 at 14:56
Not exactly. Robjohn showed that the series converges absolutely.
– Jakobian
Nov 22 at 15:06
No, he didnt proved that the series converges absolutely! In general, it is false! Counterexample: $a_n = (-1)^n$! Problem: We dont have a bound for $sum_{k=1}^n |a_k|$ only for $sum_{k=1}^n a_k$.
– p4sch
Nov 22 at 15:07
@p4sch: the series in the last line converges absolutely by comparison to $sum k^{-3/2}$. That that series converges shows that the sequence of partial sums is Cauchy, and the series of partial sums are the same,
– robjohn♦
Nov 22 at 15:10
As I already said, you only prove that the sequence $(sum_{k=1}^n a_k/k)_{n in mathbb{N}}$ is bounded. Of course, this argument can be adapted in order to prove that this sequence is Cauchy! However, your answer doesn't prove convergence!
– p4sch
Nov 22 at 15:13
You only prove an upper bound for $|sum_{k=1}^n frac{a_k}{k}|$. The right-way to prove the convergence is to show that $sum_{k=1}^infty frac{a_k}{k}$ is a Cauchy-sequence!
– p4sch
Nov 22 at 14:56
You only prove an upper bound for $|sum_{k=1}^n frac{a_k}{k}|$. The right-way to prove the convergence is to show that $sum_{k=1}^infty frac{a_k}{k}$ is a Cauchy-sequence!
– p4sch
Nov 22 at 14:56
Not exactly. Robjohn showed that the series converges absolutely.
– Jakobian
Nov 22 at 15:06
Not exactly. Robjohn showed that the series converges absolutely.
– Jakobian
Nov 22 at 15:06
No, he didnt proved that the series converges absolutely! In general, it is false! Counterexample: $a_n = (-1)^n$! Problem: We dont have a bound for $sum_{k=1}^n |a_k|$ only for $sum_{k=1}^n a_k$.
– p4sch
Nov 22 at 15:07
No, he didnt proved that the series converges absolutely! In general, it is false! Counterexample: $a_n = (-1)^n$! Problem: We dont have a bound for $sum_{k=1}^n |a_k|$ only for $sum_{k=1}^n a_k$.
– p4sch
Nov 22 at 15:07
@p4sch: the series in the last line converges absolutely by comparison to $sum k^{-3/2}$. That that series converges shows that the sequence of partial sums is Cauchy, and the series of partial sums are the same,
– robjohn♦
Nov 22 at 15:10
@p4sch: the series in the last line converges absolutely by comparison to $sum k^{-3/2}$. That that series converges shows that the sequence of partial sums is Cauchy, and the series of partial sums are the same,
– robjohn♦
Nov 22 at 15:10
As I already said, you only prove that the sequence $(sum_{k=1}^n a_k/k)_{n in mathbb{N}}$ is bounded. Of course, this argument can be adapted in order to prove that this sequence is Cauchy! However, your answer doesn't prove convergence!
– p4sch
Nov 22 at 15:13
As I already said, you only prove that the sequence $(sum_{k=1}^n a_k/k)_{n in mathbb{N}}$ is bounded. Of course, this argument can be adapted in order to prove that this sequence is Cauchy! However, your answer doesn't prove convergence!
– p4sch
Nov 22 at 15:13
|
show 2 more comments
up vote
1
down vote
In order to prove the convergence, it is enough to show that this sequence is a Cauchy-sequence (another way to prove the convergence is given by robjohn), because $mathbb{R}$, resp. $mathbb{C}$ is complete. Write $A_k := sum_{i=1}^k a_i$ and $B_k := sum_{i=1}^k a_i/i$. Note that $a_k = A_{k} - A_{k-1}$ Then for $n>m$
begin{align}
|B_n - B_m| = left| sum_{i=m+1}^n frac{a_i}{i} right| &= left| sum_{i=m+1}^n frac{A_i -A_{i-1}}{i} right| \
& = frac{|A_m|}{m+1} + frac{|A_n|}{n} + left| sum_{i=m+1}^{n-1} A_i left(frac{1}{i} - frac{1}{i-1} right) right|
end{align}
Since $(i^{-1}-(i-1)^{-1})= -(i(i-1))^{-1}$ Now we can use the bound to get the bound
$$frac{2C}{sqrt{m}}+ C sum_{i=m+1}^{n-1} frac{1}{(i-1) sqrt{i}}.$$
The last sum can be estimated by $int_{m-1}^infty frac{1}{x^{3/2}} d x < frac{3}{2} (m-1)^{-1/2}.$ All in all, we see that $$|B_n-B_m| le frac{3C}{(m-1)^{1/2}},$$
i.e. this is a Cauchy-sequence as claimed.
Note that this argument works also if we only require that $$|sum_{k=1}^n a_k| le C n^{1-varepsilon}.$$
Moreover, we cannot expect that $sum_{k=1}^infty a_k/k$ converges absolutely. Just take $a_k = (-1)^k$, then $$|sum_{k=1}^n a_k| le 1 le sqrt{n},$$ but $$sum_{k=1}^infty frac{|a_k|}{k} = sum_{k=1}^infty frac{1}{k} =infty.$$
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1
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In order to prove the convergence, it is enough to show that this sequence is a Cauchy-sequence (another way to prove the convergence is given by robjohn), because $mathbb{R}$, resp. $mathbb{C}$ is complete. Write $A_k := sum_{i=1}^k a_i$ and $B_k := sum_{i=1}^k a_i/i$. Note that $a_k = A_{k} - A_{k-1}$ Then for $n>m$
begin{align}
|B_n - B_m| = left| sum_{i=m+1}^n frac{a_i}{i} right| &= left| sum_{i=m+1}^n frac{A_i -A_{i-1}}{i} right| \
& = frac{|A_m|}{m+1} + frac{|A_n|}{n} + left| sum_{i=m+1}^{n-1} A_i left(frac{1}{i} - frac{1}{i-1} right) right|
end{align}
Since $(i^{-1}-(i-1)^{-1})= -(i(i-1))^{-1}$ Now we can use the bound to get the bound
$$frac{2C}{sqrt{m}}+ C sum_{i=m+1}^{n-1} frac{1}{(i-1) sqrt{i}}.$$
The last sum can be estimated by $int_{m-1}^infty frac{1}{x^{3/2}} d x < frac{3}{2} (m-1)^{-1/2}.$ All in all, we see that $$|B_n-B_m| le frac{3C}{(m-1)^{1/2}},$$
i.e. this is a Cauchy-sequence as claimed.
Note that this argument works also if we only require that $$|sum_{k=1}^n a_k| le C n^{1-varepsilon}.$$
Moreover, we cannot expect that $sum_{k=1}^infty a_k/k$ converges absolutely. Just take $a_k = (-1)^k$, then $$|sum_{k=1}^n a_k| le 1 le sqrt{n},$$ but $$sum_{k=1}^infty frac{|a_k|}{k} = sum_{k=1}^infty frac{1}{k} =infty.$$
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
In order to prove the convergence, it is enough to show that this sequence is a Cauchy-sequence (another way to prove the convergence is given by robjohn), because $mathbb{R}$, resp. $mathbb{C}$ is complete. Write $A_k := sum_{i=1}^k a_i$ and $B_k := sum_{i=1}^k a_i/i$. Note that $a_k = A_{k} - A_{k-1}$ Then for $n>m$
begin{align}
|B_n - B_m| = left| sum_{i=m+1}^n frac{a_i}{i} right| &= left| sum_{i=m+1}^n frac{A_i -A_{i-1}}{i} right| \
& = frac{|A_m|}{m+1} + frac{|A_n|}{n} + left| sum_{i=m+1}^{n-1} A_i left(frac{1}{i} - frac{1}{i-1} right) right|
end{align}
Since $(i^{-1}-(i-1)^{-1})= -(i(i-1))^{-1}$ Now we can use the bound to get the bound
$$frac{2C}{sqrt{m}}+ C sum_{i=m+1}^{n-1} frac{1}{(i-1) sqrt{i}}.$$
The last sum can be estimated by $int_{m-1}^infty frac{1}{x^{3/2}} d x < frac{3}{2} (m-1)^{-1/2}.$ All in all, we see that $$|B_n-B_m| le frac{3C}{(m-1)^{1/2}},$$
i.e. this is a Cauchy-sequence as claimed.
Note that this argument works also if we only require that $$|sum_{k=1}^n a_k| le C n^{1-varepsilon}.$$
Moreover, we cannot expect that $sum_{k=1}^infty a_k/k$ converges absolutely. Just take $a_k = (-1)^k$, then $$|sum_{k=1}^n a_k| le 1 le sqrt{n},$$ but $$sum_{k=1}^infty frac{|a_k|}{k} = sum_{k=1}^infty frac{1}{k} =infty.$$
In order to prove the convergence, it is enough to show that this sequence is a Cauchy-sequence (another way to prove the convergence is given by robjohn), because $mathbb{R}$, resp. $mathbb{C}$ is complete. Write $A_k := sum_{i=1}^k a_i$ and $B_k := sum_{i=1}^k a_i/i$. Note that $a_k = A_{k} - A_{k-1}$ Then for $n>m$
begin{align}
|B_n - B_m| = left| sum_{i=m+1}^n frac{a_i}{i} right| &= left| sum_{i=m+1}^n frac{A_i -A_{i-1}}{i} right| \
& = frac{|A_m|}{m+1} + frac{|A_n|}{n} + left| sum_{i=m+1}^{n-1} A_i left(frac{1}{i} - frac{1}{i-1} right) right|
end{align}
Since $(i^{-1}-(i-1)^{-1})= -(i(i-1))^{-1}$ Now we can use the bound to get the bound
$$frac{2C}{sqrt{m}}+ C sum_{i=m+1}^{n-1} frac{1}{(i-1) sqrt{i}}.$$
The last sum can be estimated by $int_{m-1}^infty frac{1}{x^{3/2}} d x < frac{3}{2} (m-1)^{-1/2}.$ All in all, we see that $$|B_n-B_m| le frac{3C}{(m-1)^{1/2}},$$
i.e. this is a Cauchy-sequence as claimed.
Note that this argument works also if we only require that $$|sum_{k=1}^n a_k| le C n^{1-varepsilon}.$$
Moreover, we cannot expect that $sum_{k=1}^infty a_k/k$ converges absolutely. Just take $a_k = (-1)^k$, then $$|sum_{k=1}^n a_k| le 1 le sqrt{n},$$ but $$sum_{k=1}^infty frac{|a_k|}{k} = sum_{k=1}^infty frac{1}{k} =infty.$$
edited Nov 22 at 15:25
answered Nov 22 at 15:15
p4sch
3,740216
3,740216
add a comment |
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You switch between $k$ and $n$ in your solution, you should fix that.
– Jakobian
Nov 22 at 14:50
I had edited it. Thanks for pointing my mistake.
– weilam06
Nov 22 at 15:02