What is the meaning of ∀x∃x?











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Say we are in first-order logic, $x$ is a variable and its values are from a set of values, doesn't matter what.



$∀x∃x$ means for every $x$ (from the set of values) there exist at least one x (from the set of values). Since we took all $x$s from the set, of course each one itself does exist for itself because $x$ is $x$. Hence this should actually shorten to $∀x$ am I right?



The same reasoning for $∃x∀x$: there exist at least one $x*$ such that every $x$ from those $*$ is $x$. Well of course, since $x$ is $x$. So it shortens to $∃x$. Am I correct?



Conclusion



Thank you for all the answers. I was wrong, it is the other way around. I think the gist of it is that the innermost quantifier matters only when quantifying the same variable for the same formula, and the outer quantifiers (of the same variable & formula) become null quantifiers since there is nothing to quantify anymore. This is, analog to computer programs, similar to variable shadowing, which is when you over-declare/define a variable, here we are over-defining quantifiers in an expression like the above.










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  • In general, if $x$ is not free in $phi$, both $forall x phi$ and $exists x phi$ are equivalent to $phi$.
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    2 days ago












  • @MauroALLEGRANZA Thank you Mauro!
    – Najib
    2 days ago










  • Of course, in practice, it would be best to avoid such expressions (ask any CS student about "variable shadowing" for an explanation of why).
    – Daniel Schepler
    2 days ago















up vote
1
down vote

favorite












Say we are in first-order logic, $x$ is a variable and its values are from a set of values, doesn't matter what.



$∀x∃x$ means for every $x$ (from the set of values) there exist at least one x (from the set of values). Since we took all $x$s from the set, of course each one itself does exist for itself because $x$ is $x$. Hence this should actually shorten to $∀x$ am I right?



The same reasoning for $∃x∀x$: there exist at least one $x*$ such that every $x$ from those $*$ is $x$. Well of course, since $x$ is $x$. So it shortens to $∃x$. Am I correct?



Conclusion



Thank you for all the answers. I was wrong, it is the other way around. I think the gist of it is that the innermost quantifier matters only when quantifying the same variable for the same formula, and the outer quantifiers (of the same variable & formula) become null quantifiers since there is nothing to quantify anymore. This is, analog to computer programs, similar to variable shadowing, which is when you over-declare/define a variable, here we are over-defining quantifiers in an expression like the above.










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Najib is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.




















  • In general, if $x$ is not free in $phi$, both $forall x phi$ and $exists x phi$ are equivalent to $phi$.
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    2 days ago












  • @MauroALLEGRANZA Thank you Mauro!
    – Najib
    2 days ago










  • Of course, in practice, it would be best to avoid such expressions (ask any CS student about "variable shadowing" for an explanation of why).
    – Daniel Schepler
    2 days ago













up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











Say we are in first-order logic, $x$ is a variable and its values are from a set of values, doesn't matter what.



$∀x∃x$ means for every $x$ (from the set of values) there exist at least one x (from the set of values). Since we took all $x$s from the set, of course each one itself does exist for itself because $x$ is $x$. Hence this should actually shorten to $∀x$ am I right?



The same reasoning for $∃x∀x$: there exist at least one $x*$ such that every $x$ from those $*$ is $x$. Well of course, since $x$ is $x$. So it shortens to $∃x$. Am I correct?



Conclusion



Thank you for all the answers. I was wrong, it is the other way around. I think the gist of it is that the innermost quantifier matters only when quantifying the same variable for the same formula, and the outer quantifiers (of the same variable & formula) become null quantifiers since there is nothing to quantify anymore. This is, analog to computer programs, similar to variable shadowing, which is when you over-declare/define a variable, here we are over-defining quantifiers in an expression like the above.










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




Najib is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.











Say we are in first-order logic, $x$ is a variable and its values are from a set of values, doesn't matter what.



$∀x∃x$ means for every $x$ (from the set of values) there exist at least one x (from the set of values). Since we took all $x$s from the set, of course each one itself does exist for itself because $x$ is $x$. Hence this should actually shorten to $∀x$ am I right?



The same reasoning for $∃x∀x$: there exist at least one $x*$ such that every $x$ from those $*$ is $x$. Well of course, since $x$ is $x$. So it shortens to $∃x$. Am I correct?



Conclusion



Thank you for all the answers. I was wrong, it is the other way around. I think the gist of it is that the innermost quantifier matters only when quantifying the same variable for the same formula, and the outer quantifiers (of the same variable & formula) become null quantifiers since there is nothing to quantify anymore. This is, analog to computer programs, similar to variable shadowing, which is when you over-declare/define a variable, here we are over-defining quantifiers in an expression like the above.







logic first-order-logic quantifiers






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edited yesterday





















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asked 2 days ago









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  • In general, if $x$ is not free in $phi$, both $forall x phi$ and $exists x phi$ are equivalent to $phi$.
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    2 days ago












  • @MauroALLEGRANZA Thank you Mauro!
    – Najib
    2 days ago










  • Of course, in practice, it would be best to avoid such expressions (ask any CS student about "variable shadowing" for an explanation of why).
    – Daniel Schepler
    2 days ago


















  • In general, if $x$ is not free in $phi$, both $forall x phi$ and $exists x phi$ are equivalent to $phi$.
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    2 days ago












  • @MauroALLEGRANZA Thank you Mauro!
    – Najib
    2 days ago










  • Of course, in practice, it would be best to avoid such expressions (ask any CS student about "variable shadowing" for an explanation of why).
    – Daniel Schepler
    2 days ago
















In general, if $x$ is not free in $phi$, both $forall x phi$ and $exists x phi$ are equivalent to $phi$.
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
2 days ago






In general, if $x$ is not free in $phi$, both $forall x phi$ and $exists x phi$ are equivalent to $phi$.
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
2 days ago














@MauroALLEGRANZA Thank you Mauro!
– Najib
2 days ago




@MauroALLEGRANZA Thank you Mauro!
– Najib
2 days ago












Of course, in practice, it would be best to avoid such expressions (ask any CS student about "variable shadowing" for an explanation of why).
– Daniel Schepler
2 days ago




Of course, in practice, it would be best to avoid such expressions (ask any CS student about "variable shadowing" for an explanation of why).
– Daniel Schepler
2 days ago










2 Answers
2






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oldest

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up vote
1
down vote



accepted










You are right that with multiple quantifiers that are next to each other and that quantify the same variable, you can reduce it to just one quantifier, as the others effectively end up not doing any interesting work at all; they are what are called 'null quantifiers'.



However, you got it just the other way around. As it turns out, the quantifier that stays is the most inside quantifier, and the ones outside of it become the null quantifiers.



That is, a statement like $forall x exists x P(x)$ is the same as $exists x P(x)$



And $exists x forall x P(x)$ is equivalent to $forall x P(x)$



To explain:



Take $forall x exists x P(x)$ . Now, suppose that there is at least one object $x$ such that it has property $P$. Then $exists x P(x)$ is true, and notice that that statement has no free variables $x$. So, when you 'quantify' that expression by putting a $forall x$ in front of it, then that quantifier does not quantify anything and is therefore a null quantifier, and can be removed without changing the truth-conditions of the sentence






share|cite|improve this answer























  • I should have used a relation symbol you are right. But I don't get it. Does the evaluation order matter? I evaluate from left to right i.e. from the outside. Is that the problem and instead I should look at it from the left from P(x)?
    – Najib
    2 days ago












  • Such that ∀x ∃x P(x) should be read like "P(x) is true for some x-s (and for all of those some)"?
    – Najib
    2 days ago










  • Okay. I am replying to each edit. So that means that the one quantifier that matters for the predicate is the one before it. So things should be read from right to left of the predicate the quantifier chain quantifies, right?
    – Najib
    2 days ago












  • @NajibGhadri Yes, because that is how you build up the sentence suntactically as well.
    – Bram28
    2 days ago










  • Thank you, it is all clear!
    – Najib
    2 days ago




















up vote
0
down vote













A more succinct explanation: it's obvious that $exists x P(x)$ is equivalent to $exists y P(y)$. You can't change the truth value of a statement merely by renaming some entities.



So $forall x [exists x P(x)]$ should be equivalent to $forall x [exists y P(y)]$ - if you're queasy about this, step through it explicitly by setting $phi := exists x P(x)$.



But that is manifestly equivalent to $exists y P(y)$ (assuming as usual that the domain of discourse is not empty), which is just $exists x P(x)$.






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    2 Answers
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    2 Answers
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    active

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    up vote
    1
    down vote



    accepted










    You are right that with multiple quantifiers that are next to each other and that quantify the same variable, you can reduce it to just one quantifier, as the others effectively end up not doing any interesting work at all; they are what are called 'null quantifiers'.



    However, you got it just the other way around. As it turns out, the quantifier that stays is the most inside quantifier, and the ones outside of it become the null quantifiers.



    That is, a statement like $forall x exists x P(x)$ is the same as $exists x P(x)$



    And $exists x forall x P(x)$ is equivalent to $forall x P(x)$



    To explain:



    Take $forall x exists x P(x)$ . Now, suppose that there is at least one object $x$ such that it has property $P$. Then $exists x P(x)$ is true, and notice that that statement has no free variables $x$. So, when you 'quantify' that expression by putting a $forall x$ in front of it, then that quantifier does not quantify anything and is therefore a null quantifier, and can be removed without changing the truth-conditions of the sentence






    share|cite|improve this answer























    • I should have used a relation symbol you are right. But I don't get it. Does the evaluation order matter? I evaluate from left to right i.e. from the outside. Is that the problem and instead I should look at it from the left from P(x)?
      – Najib
      2 days ago












    • Such that ∀x ∃x P(x) should be read like "P(x) is true for some x-s (and for all of those some)"?
      – Najib
      2 days ago










    • Okay. I am replying to each edit. So that means that the one quantifier that matters for the predicate is the one before it. So things should be read from right to left of the predicate the quantifier chain quantifies, right?
      – Najib
      2 days ago












    • @NajibGhadri Yes, because that is how you build up the sentence suntactically as well.
      – Bram28
      2 days ago










    • Thank you, it is all clear!
      – Najib
      2 days ago

















    up vote
    1
    down vote



    accepted










    You are right that with multiple quantifiers that are next to each other and that quantify the same variable, you can reduce it to just one quantifier, as the others effectively end up not doing any interesting work at all; they are what are called 'null quantifiers'.



    However, you got it just the other way around. As it turns out, the quantifier that stays is the most inside quantifier, and the ones outside of it become the null quantifiers.



    That is, a statement like $forall x exists x P(x)$ is the same as $exists x P(x)$



    And $exists x forall x P(x)$ is equivalent to $forall x P(x)$



    To explain:



    Take $forall x exists x P(x)$ . Now, suppose that there is at least one object $x$ such that it has property $P$. Then $exists x P(x)$ is true, and notice that that statement has no free variables $x$. So, when you 'quantify' that expression by putting a $forall x$ in front of it, then that quantifier does not quantify anything and is therefore a null quantifier, and can be removed without changing the truth-conditions of the sentence






    share|cite|improve this answer























    • I should have used a relation symbol you are right. But I don't get it. Does the evaluation order matter? I evaluate from left to right i.e. from the outside. Is that the problem and instead I should look at it from the left from P(x)?
      – Najib
      2 days ago












    • Such that ∀x ∃x P(x) should be read like "P(x) is true for some x-s (and for all of those some)"?
      – Najib
      2 days ago










    • Okay. I am replying to each edit. So that means that the one quantifier that matters for the predicate is the one before it. So things should be read from right to left of the predicate the quantifier chain quantifies, right?
      – Najib
      2 days ago












    • @NajibGhadri Yes, because that is how you build up the sentence suntactically as well.
      – Bram28
      2 days ago










    • Thank you, it is all clear!
      – Najib
      2 days ago















    up vote
    1
    down vote



    accepted







    up vote
    1
    down vote



    accepted






    You are right that with multiple quantifiers that are next to each other and that quantify the same variable, you can reduce it to just one quantifier, as the others effectively end up not doing any interesting work at all; they are what are called 'null quantifiers'.



    However, you got it just the other way around. As it turns out, the quantifier that stays is the most inside quantifier, and the ones outside of it become the null quantifiers.



    That is, a statement like $forall x exists x P(x)$ is the same as $exists x P(x)$



    And $exists x forall x P(x)$ is equivalent to $forall x P(x)$



    To explain:



    Take $forall x exists x P(x)$ . Now, suppose that there is at least one object $x$ such that it has property $P$. Then $exists x P(x)$ is true, and notice that that statement has no free variables $x$. So, when you 'quantify' that expression by putting a $forall x$ in front of it, then that quantifier does not quantify anything and is therefore a null quantifier, and can be removed without changing the truth-conditions of the sentence






    share|cite|improve this answer














    You are right that with multiple quantifiers that are next to each other and that quantify the same variable, you can reduce it to just one quantifier, as the others effectively end up not doing any interesting work at all; they are what are called 'null quantifiers'.



    However, you got it just the other way around. As it turns out, the quantifier that stays is the most inside quantifier, and the ones outside of it become the null quantifiers.



    That is, a statement like $forall x exists x P(x)$ is the same as $exists x P(x)$



    And $exists x forall x P(x)$ is equivalent to $forall x P(x)$



    To explain:



    Take $forall x exists x P(x)$ . Now, suppose that there is at least one object $x$ such that it has property $P$. Then $exists x P(x)$ is true, and notice that that statement has no free variables $x$. So, when you 'quantify' that expression by putting a $forall x$ in front of it, then that quantifier does not quantify anything and is therefore a null quantifier, and can be removed without changing the truth-conditions of the sentence







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited 2 days ago

























    answered 2 days ago









    Bram28

    58.2k44185




    58.2k44185












    • I should have used a relation symbol you are right. But I don't get it. Does the evaluation order matter? I evaluate from left to right i.e. from the outside. Is that the problem and instead I should look at it from the left from P(x)?
      – Najib
      2 days ago












    • Such that ∀x ∃x P(x) should be read like "P(x) is true for some x-s (and for all of those some)"?
      – Najib
      2 days ago










    • Okay. I am replying to each edit. So that means that the one quantifier that matters for the predicate is the one before it. So things should be read from right to left of the predicate the quantifier chain quantifies, right?
      – Najib
      2 days ago












    • @NajibGhadri Yes, because that is how you build up the sentence suntactically as well.
      – Bram28
      2 days ago










    • Thank you, it is all clear!
      – Najib
      2 days ago




















    • I should have used a relation symbol you are right. But I don't get it. Does the evaluation order matter? I evaluate from left to right i.e. from the outside. Is that the problem and instead I should look at it from the left from P(x)?
      – Najib
      2 days ago












    • Such that ∀x ∃x P(x) should be read like "P(x) is true for some x-s (and for all of those some)"?
      – Najib
      2 days ago










    • Okay. I am replying to each edit. So that means that the one quantifier that matters for the predicate is the one before it. So things should be read from right to left of the predicate the quantifier chain quantifies, right?
      – Najib
      2 days ago












    • @NajibGhadri Yes, because that is how you build up the sentence suntactically as well.
      – Bram28
      2 days ago










    • Thank you, it is all clear!
      – Najib
      2 days ago


















    I should have used a relation symbol you are right. But I don't get it. Does the evaluation order matter? I evaluate from left to right i.e. from the outside. Is that the problem and instead I should look at it from the left from P(x)?
    – Najib
    2 days ago






    I should have used a relation symbol you are right. But I don't get it. Does the evaluation order matter? I evaluate from left to right i.e. from the outside. Is that the problem and instead I should look at it from the left from P(x)?
    – Najib
    2 days ago














    Such that ∀x ∃x P(x) should be read like "P(x) is true for some x-s (and for all of those some)"?
    – Najib
    2 days ago




    Such that ∀x ∃x P(x) should be read like "P(x) is true for some x-s (and for all of those some)"?
    – Najib
    2 days ago












    Okay. I am replying to each edit. So that means that the one quantifier that matters for the predicate is the one before it. So things should be read from right to left of the predicate the quantifier chain quantifies, right?
    – Najib
    2 days ago






    Okay. I am replying to each edit. So that means that the one quantifier that matters for the predicate is the one before it. So things should be read from right to left of the predicate the quantifier chain quantifies, right?
    – Najib
    2 days ago














    @NajibGhadri Yes, because that is how you build up the sentence suntactically as well.
    – Bram28
    2 days ago




    @NajibGhadri Yes, because that is how you build up the sentence suntactically as well.
    – Bram28
    2 days ago












    Thank you, it is all clear!
    – Najib
    2 days ago






    Thank you, it is all clear!
    – Najib
    2 days ago












    up vote
    0
    down vote













    A more succinct explanation: it's obvious that $exists x P(x)$ is equivalent to $exists y P(y)$. You can't change the truth value of a statement merely by renaming some entities.



    So $forall x [exists x P(x)]$ should be equivalent to $forall x [exists y P(y)]$ - if you're queasy about this, step through it explicitly by setting $phi := exists x P(x)$.



    But that is manifestly equivalent to $exists y P(y)$ (assuming as usual that the domain of discourse is not empty), which is just $exists x P(x)$.






    share|cite|improve this answer



























      up vote
      0
      down vote













      A more succinct explanation: it's obvious that $exists x P(x)$ is equivalent to $exists y P(y)$. You can't change the truth value of a statement merely by renaming some entities.



      So $forall x [exists x P(x)]$ should be equivalent to $forall x [exists y P(y)]$ - if you're queasy about this, step through it explicitly by setting $phi := exists x P(x)$.



      But that is manifestly equivalent to $exists y P(y)$ (assuming as usual that the domain of discourse is not empty), which is just $exists x P(x)$.






      share|cite|improve this answer

























        up vote
        0
        down vote










        up vote
        0
        down vote









        A more succinct explanation: it's obvious that $exists x P(x)$ is equivalent to $exists y P(y)$. You can't change the truth value of a statement merely by renaming some entities.



        So $forall x [exists x P(x)]$ should be equivalent to $forall x [exists y P(y)]$ - if you're queasy about this, step through it explicitly by setting $phi := exists x P(x)$.



        But that is manifestly equivalent to $exists y P(y)$ (assuming as usual that the domain of discourse is not empty), which is just $exists x P(x)$.






        share|cite|improve this answer














        A more succinct explanation: it's obvious that $exists x P(x)$ is equivalent to $exists y P(y)$. You can't change the truth value of a statement merely by renaming some entities.



        So $forall x [exists x P(x)]$ should be equivalent to $forall x [exists y P(y)]$ - if you're queasy about this, step through it explicitly by setting $phi := exists x P(x)$.



        But that is manifestly equivalent to $exists y P(y)$ (assuming as usual that the domain of discourse is not empty), which is just $exists x P(x)$.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited yesterday









        Graham Kemp

        84.1k43378




        84.1k43378










        answered 2 days ago









        Patrick Stevens

        27.9k52873




        27.9k52873






















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