What is the meaning of ∀x∃x?
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Say we are in first-order logic, $x$ is a variable and its values are from a set of values, doesn't matter what.
$∀x∃x$ means for every $x$ (from the set of values) there exist at least one x (from the set of values). Since we took all $x$s from the set, of course each one itself does exist for itself because $x$ is $x$. Hence this should actually shorten to $∀x$ am I right?
The same reasoning for $∃x∀x$: there exist at least one $x*$ such that every $x$ from those $*$ is $x$. Well of course, since $x$ is $x$. So it shortens to $∃x$. Am I correct?
Conclusion
Thank you for all the answers. I was wrong, it is the other way around. I think the gist of it is that the innermost quantifier matters only when quantifying the same variable for the same formula, and the outer quantifiers (of the same variable & formula) become null quantifiers since there is nothing to quantify anymore. This is, analog to computer programs, similar to variable shadowing, which is when you over-declare/define a variable, here we are over-defining quantifiers in an expression like the above.
logic first-order-logic quantifiers
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up vote
1
down vote
favorite
Say we are in first-order logic, $x$ is a variable and its values are from a set of values, doesn't matter what.
$∀x∃x$ means for every $x$ (from the set of values) there exist at least one x (from the set of values). Since we took all $x$s from the set, of course each one itself does exist for itself because $x$ is $x$. Hence this should actually shorten to $∀x$ am I right?
The same reasoning for $∃x∀x$: there exist at least one $x*$ such that every $x$ from those $*$ is $x$. Well of course, since $x$ is $x$. So it shortens to $∃x$. Am I correct?
Conclusion
Thank you for all the answers. I was wrong, it is the other way around. I think the gist of it is that the innermost quantifier matters only when quantifying the same variable for the same formula, and the outer quantifiers (of the same variable & formula) become null quantifiers since there is nothing to quantify anymore. This is, analog to computer programs, similar to variable shadowing, which is when you over-declare/define a variable, here we are over-defining quantifiers in an expression like the above.
logic first-order-logic quantifiers
New contributor
Najib is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
In general, if $x$ is not free in $phi$, both $forall x phi$ and $exists x phi$ are equivalent to $phi$.
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
2 days ago
@MauroALLEGRANZA Thank you Mauro!
– Najib
2 days ago
Of course, in practice, it would be best to avoid such expressions (ask any CS student about "variable shadowing" for an explanation of why).
– Daniel Schepler
2 days ago
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
Say we are in first-order logic, $x$ is a variable and its values are from a set of values, doesn't matter what.
$∀x∃x$ means for every $x$ (from the set of values) there exist at least one x (from the set of values). Since we took all $x$s from the set, of course each one itself does exist for itself because $x$ is $x$. Hence this should actually shorten to $∀x$ am I right?
The same reasoning for $∃x∀x$: there exist at least one $x*$ such that every $x$ from those $*$ is $x$. Well of course, since $x$ is $x$. So it shortens to $∃x$. Am I correct?
Conclusion
Thank you for all the answers. I was wrong, it is the other way around. I think the gist of it is that the innermost quantifier matters only when quantifying the same variable for the same formula, and the outer quantifiers (of the same variable & formula) become null quantifiers since there is nothing to quantify anymore. This is, analog to computer programs, similar to variable shadowing, which is when you over-declare/define a variable, here we are over-defining quantifiers in an expression like the above.
logic first-order-logic quantifiers
New contributor
Najib is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
Say we are in first-order logic, $x$ is a variable and its values are from a set of values, doesn't matter what.
$∀x∃x$ means for every $x$ (from the set of values) there exist at least one x (from the set of values). Since we took all $x$s from the set, of course each one itself does exist for itself because $x$ is $x$. Hence this should actually shorten to $∀x$ am I right?
The same reasoning for $∃x∀x$: there exist at least one $x*$ such that every $x$ from those $*$ is $x$. Well of course, since $x$ is $x$. So it shortens to $∃x$. Am I correct?
Conclusion
Thank you for all the answers. I was wrong, it is the other way around. I think the gist of it is that the innermost quantifier matters only when quantifying the same variable for the same formula, and the outer quantifiers (of the same variable & formula) become null quantifiers since there is nothing to quantify anymore. This is, analog to computer programs, similar to variable shadowing, which is when you over-declare/define a variable, here we are over-defining quantifiers in an expression like the above.
logic first-order-logic quantifiers
logic first-order-logic quantifiers
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Najib is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
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edited yesterday
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asked 2 days ago
Najib
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In general, if $x$ is not free in $phi$, both $forall x phi$ and $exists x phi$ are equivalent to $phi$.
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
2 days ago
@MauroALLEGRANZA Thank you Mauro!
– Najib
2 days ago
Of course, in practice, it would be best to avoid such expressions (ask any CS student about "variable shadowing" for an explanation of why).
– Daniel Schepler
2 days ago
add a comment |
In general, if $x$ is not free in $phi$, both $forall x phi$ and $exists x phi$ are equivalent to $phi$.
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
2 days ago
@MauroALLEGRANZA Thank you Mauro!
– Najib
2 days ago
Of course, in practice, it would be best to avoid such expressions (ask any CS student about "variable shadowing" for an explanation of why).
– Daniel Schepler
2 days ago
In general, if $x$ is not free in $phi$, both $forall x phi$ and $exists x phi$ are equivalent to $phi$.
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
2 days ago
In general, if $x$ is not free in $phi$, both $forall x phi$ and $exists x phi$ are equivalent to $phi$.
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
2 days ago
@MauroALLEGRANZA Thank you Mauro!
– Najib
2 days ago
@MauroALLEGRANZA Thank you Mauro!
– Najib
2 days ago
Of course, in practice, it would be best to avoid such expressions (ask any CS student about "variable shadowing" for an explanation of why).
– Daniel Schepler
2 days ago
Of course, in practice, it would be best to avoid such expressions (ask any CS student about "variable shadowing" for an explanation of why).
– Daniel Schepler
2 days ago
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
You are right that with multiple quantifiers that are next to each other and that quantify the same variable, you can reduce it to just one quantifier, as the others effectively end up not doing any interesting work at all; they are what are called 'null quantifiers'.
However, you got it just the other way around. As it turns out, the quantifier that stays is the most inside quantifier, and the ones outside of it become the null quantifiers.
That is, a statement like $forall x exists x P(x)$ is the same as $exists x P(x)$
And $exists x forall x P(x)$ is equivalent to $forall x P(x)$
To explain:
Take $forall x exists x P(x)$ . Now, suppose that there is at least one object $x$ such that it has property $P$. Then $exists x P(x)$ is true, and notice that that statement has no free variables $x$. So, when you 'quantify' that expression by putting a $forall x$ in front of it, then that quantifier does not quantify anything and is therefore a null quantifier, and can be removed without changing the truth-conditions of the sentence
I should have used a relation symbol you are right. But I don't get it. Does the evaluation order matter? I evaluate from left to right i.e. from the outside. Is that the problem and instead I should look at it from the left from P(x)?
– Najib
2 days ago
Such that ∀x ∃x P(x) should be read like "P(x) is true for some x-s (and for all of those some)"?
– Najib
2 days ago
Okay. I am replying to each edit. So that means that the one quantifier that matters for the predicate is the one before it. So things should be read from right to left of the predicate the quantifier chain quantifies, right?
– Najib
2 days ago
@NajibGhadri Yes, because that is how you build up the sentence suntactically as well.
– Bram28
2 days ago
Thank you, it is all clear!
– Najib
2 days ago
|
show 3 more comments
up vote
0
down vote
A more succinct explanation: it's obvious that $exists x P(x)$ is equivalent to $exists y P(y)$. You can't change the truth value of a statement merely by renaming some entities.
So $forall x [exists x P(x)]$ should be equivalent to $forall x [exists y P(y)]$ - if you're queasy about this, step through it explicitly by setting $phi := exists x P(x)$.
But that is manifestly equivalent to $exists y P(y)$ (assuming as usual that the domain of discourse is not empty), which is just $exists x P(x)$.
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
You are right that with multiple quantifiers that are next to each other and that quantify the same variable, you can reduce it to just one quantifier, as the others effectively end up not doing any interesting work at all; they are what are called 'null quantifiers'.
However, you got it just the other way around. As it turns out, the quantifier that stays is the most inside quantifier, and the ones outside of it become the null quantifiers.
That is, a statement like $forall x exists x P(x)$ is the same as $exists x P(x)$
And $exists x forall x P(x)$ is equivalent to $forall x P(x)$
To explain:
Take $forall x exists x P(x)$ . Now, suppose that there is at least one object $x$ such that it has property $P$. Then $exists x P(x)$ is true, and notice that that statement has no free variables $x$. So, when you 'quantify' that expression by putting a $forall x$ in front of it, then that quantifier does not quantify anything and is therefore a null quantifier, and can be removed without changing the truth-conditions of the sentence
I should have used a relation symbol you are right. But I don't get it. Does the evaluation order matter? I evaluate from left to right i.e. from the outside. Is that the problem and instead I should look at it from the left from P(x)?
– Najib
2 days ago
Such that ∀x ∃x P(x) should be read like "P(x) is true for some x-s (and for all of those some)"?
– Najib
2 days ago
Okay. I am replying to each edit. So that means that the one quantifier that matters for the predicate is the one before it. So things should be read from right to left of the predicate the quantifier chain quantifies, right?
– Najib
2 days ago
@NajibGhadri Yes, because that is how you build up the sentence suntactically as well.
– Bram28
2 days ago
Thank you, it is all clear!
– Najib
2 days ago
|
show 3 more comments
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
You are right that with multiple quantifiers that are next to each other and that quantify the same variable, you can reduce it to just one quantifier, as the others effectively end up not doing any interesting work at all; they are what are called 'null quantifiers'.
However, you got it just the other way around. As it turns out, the quantifier that stays is the most inside quantifier, and the ones outside of it become the null quantifiers.
That is, a statement like $forall x exists x P(x)$ is the same as $exists x P(x)$
And $exists x forall x P(x)$ is equivalent to $forall x P(x)$
To explain:
Take $forall x exists x P(x)$ . Now, suppose that there is at least one object $x$ such that it has property $P$. Then $exists x P(x)$ is true, and notice that that statement has no free variables $x$. So, when you 'quantify' that expression by putting a $forall x$ in front of it, then that quantifier does not quantify anything and is therefore a null quantifier, and can be removed without changing the truth-conditions of the sentence
I should have used a relation symbol you are right. But I don't get it. Does the evaluation order matter? I evaluate from left to right i.e. from the outside. Is that the problem and instead I should look at it from the left from P(x)?
– Najib
2 days ago
Such that ∀x ∃x P(x) should be read like "P(x) is true for some x-s (and for all of those some)"?
– Najib
2 days ago
Okay. I am replying to each edit. So that means that the one quantifier that matters for the predicate is the one before it. So things should be read from right to left of the predicate the quantifier chain quantifies, right?
– Najib
2 days ago
@NajibGhadri Yes, because that is how you build up the sentence suntactically as well.
– Bram28
2 days ago
Thank you, it is all clear!
– Najib
2 days ago
|
show 3 more comments
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
You are right that with multiple quantifiers that are next to each other and that quantify the same variable, you can reduce it to just one quantifier, as the others effectively end up not doing any interesting work at all; they are what are called 'null quantifiers'.
However, you got it just the other way around. As it turns out, the quantifier that stays is the most inside quantifier, and the ones outside of it become the null quantifiers.
That is, a statement like $forall x exists x P(x)$ is the same as $exists x P(x)$
And $exists x forall x P(x)$ is equivalent to $forall x P(x)$
To explain:
Take $forall x exists x P(x)$ . Now, suppose that there is at least one object $x$ such that it has property $P$. Then $exists x P(x)$ is true, and notice that that statement has no free variables $x$. So, when you 'quantify' that expression by putting a $forall x$ in front of it, then that quantifier does not quantify anything and is therefore a null quantifier, and can be removed without changing the truth-conditions of the sentence
You are right that with multiple quantifiers that are next to each other and that quantify the same variable, you can reduce it to just one quantifier, as the others effectively end up not doing any interesting work at all; they are what are called 'null quantifiers'.
However, you got it just the other way around. As it turns out, the quantifier that stays is the most inside quantifier, and the ones outside of it become the null quantifiers.
That is, a statement like $forall x exists x P(x)$ is the same as $exists x P(x)$
And $exists x forall x P(x)$ is equivalent to $forall x P(x)$
To explain:
Take $forall x exists x P(x)$ . Now, suppose that there is at least one object $x$ such that it has property $P$. Then $exists x P(x)$ is true, and notice that that statement has no free variables $x$. So, when you 'quantify' that expression by putting a $forall x$ in front of it, then that quantifier does not quantify anything and is therefore a null quantifier, and can be removed without changing the truth-conditions of the sentence
edited 2 days ago
answered 2 days ago
Bram28
58.2k44185
58.2k44185
I should have used a relation symbol you are right. But I don't get it. Does the evaluation order matter? I evaluate from left to right i.e. from the outside. Is that the problem and instead I should look at it from the left from P(x)?
– Najib
2 days ago
Such that ∀x ∃x P(x) should be read like "P(x) is true for some x-s (and for all of those some)"?
– Najib
2 days ago
Okay. I am replying to each edit. So that means that the one quantifier that matters for the predicate is the one before it. So things should be read from right to left of the predicate the quantifier chain quantifies, right?
– Najib
2 days ago
@NajibGhadri Yes, because that is how you build up the sentence suntactically as well.
– Bram28
2 days ago
Thank you, it is all clear!
– Najib
2 days ago
|
show 3 more comments
I should have used a relation symbol you are right. But I don't get it. Does the evaluation order matter? I evaluate from left to right i.e. from the outside. Is that the problem and instead I should look at it from the left from P(x)?
– Najib
2 days ago
Such that ∀x ∃x P(x) should be read like "P(x) is true for some x-s (and for all of those some)"?
– Najib
2 days ago
Okay. I am replying to each edit. So that means that the one quantifier that matters for the predicate is the one before it. So things should be read from right to left of the predicate the quantifier chain quantifies, right?
– Najib
2 days ago
@NajibGhadri Yes, because that is how you build up the sentence suntactically as well.
– Bram28
2 days ago
Thank you, it is all clear!
– Najib
2 days ago
I should have used a relation symbol you are right. But I don't get it. Does the evaluation order matter? I evaluate from left to right i.e. from the outside. Is that the problem and instead I should look at it from the left from P(x)?
– Najib
2 days ago
I should have used a relation symbol you are right. But I don't get it. Does the evaluation order matter? I evaluate from left to right i.e. from the outside. Is that the problem and instead I should look at it from the left from P(x)?
– Najib
2 days ago
Such that ∀x ∃x P(x) should be read like "P(x) is true for some x-s (and for all of those some)"?
– Najib
2 days ago
Such that ∀x ∃x P(x) should be read like "P(x) is true for some x-s (and for all of those some)"?
– Najib
2 days ago
Okay. I am replying to each edit. So that means that the one quantifier that matters for the predicate is the one before it. So things should be read from right to left of the predicate the quantifier chain quantifies, right?
– Najib
2 days ago
Okay. I am replying to each edit. So that means that the one quantifier that matters for the predicate is the one before it. So things should be read from right to left of the predicate the quantifier chain quantifies, right?
– Najib
2 days ago
@NajibGhadri Yes, because that is how you build up the sentence suntactically as well.
– Bram28
2 days ago
@NajibGhadri Yes, because that is how you build up the sentence suntactically as well.
– Bram28
2 days ago
Thank you, it is all clear!
– Najib
2 days ago
Thank you, it is all clear!
– Najib
2 days ago
|
show 3 more comments
up vote
0
down vote
A more succinct explanation: it's obvious that $exists x P(x)$ is equivalent to $exists y P(y)$. You can't change the truth value of a statement merely by renaming some entities.
So $forall x [exists x P(x)]$ should be equivalent to $forall x [exists y P(y)]$ - if you're queasy about this, step through it explicitly by setting $phi := exists x P(x)$.
But that is manifestly equivalent to $exists y P(y)$ (assuming as usual that the domain of discourse is not empty), which is just $exists x P(x)$.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
A more succinct explanation: it's obvious that $exists x P(x)$ is equivalent to $exists y P(y)$. You can't change the truth value of a statement merely by renaming some entities.
So $forall x [exists x P(x)]$ should be equivalent to $forall x [exists y P(y)]$ - if you're queasy about this, step through it explicitly by setting $phi := exists x P(x)$.
But that is manifestly equivalent to $exists y P(y)$ (assuming as usual that the domain of discourse is not empty), which is just $exists x P(x)$.
add a comment |
up vote
0
down vote
up vote
0
down vote
A more succinct explanation: it's obvious that $exists x P(x)$ is equivalent to $exists y P(y)$. You can't change the truth value of a statement merely by renaming some entities.
So $forall x [exists x P(x)]$ should be equivalent to $forall x [exists y P(y)]$ - if you're queasy about this, step through it explicitly by setting $phi := exists x P(x)$.
But that is manifestly equivalent to $exists y P(y)$ (assuming as usual that the domain of discourse is not empty), which is just $exists x P(x)$.
A more succinct explanation: it's obvious that $exists x P(x)$ is equivalent to $exists y P(y)$. You can't change the truth value of a statement merely by renaming some entities.
So $forall x [exists x P(x)]$ should be equivalent to $forall x [exists y P(y)]$ - if you're queasy about this, step through it explicitly by setting $phi := exists x P(x)$.
But that is manifestly equivalent to $exists y P(y)$ (assuming as usual that the domain of discourse is not empty), which is just $exists x P(x)$.
edited yesterday
Graham Kemp
84.1k43378
84.1k43378
answered 2 days ago
Patrick Stevens
27.9k52873
27.9k52873
add a comment |
add a comment |
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In general, if $x$ is not free in $phi$, both $forall x phi$ and $exists x phi$ are equivalent to $phi$.
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
2 days ago
@MauroALLEGRANZA Thank you Mauro!
– Najib
2 days ago
Of course, in practice, it would be best to avoid such expressions (ask any CS student about "variable shadowing" for an explanation of why).
– Daniel Schepler
2 days ago