If $A^2 = I$ (Identity Matrix) then $A = pm I$
So I'm studying linear algebra and one of the self-study exercises has a set of true or false questions. One of the question is this:
If $A^2 = I$ (Identity Matrix) Then $A = pm I$ ?
I'm pretty sure it is true but the answer say it's false. How can this be false (maybe its a typography error on the book)?
linear-algebra matrices examples-counterexamples
add a comment |
So I'm studying linear algebra and one of the self-study exercises has a set of true or false questions. One of the question is this:
If $A^2 = I$ (Identity Matrix) Then $A = pm I$ ?
I'm pretty sure it is true but the answer say it's false. How can this be false (maybe its a typography error on the book)?
linear-algebra matrices examples-counterexamples
24
Try $$ A = begin{pmatrix} 0 & 1 \ 1 & 0 end{pmatrix}. $$
– Dylan Moreland
Feb 5 '12 at 20:13
1
I'd point out that it is true if you're working with $1$-by-$1$ matrices (over $mathbb C$, or any other integral domain). But for $n geq 2$ the ring of $n$-by-$n$ matrices over any non-trivial ring is not an integral domain: this means that $(A+I)(A-I) = 0$ doesn't necessarily imply that $A + I = 0 $ or $A - I = 0$.
– Matt
Feb 5 '12 at 20:30
possible duplicate of Finding number of matrices whose square is the identity matrix
– Jonas Meyer
Feb 5 '12 at 20:56
There's an entire family of so-called involutory matrices. Look up Householder reflectors, for instance.
– J. M. is not a mathematician
Feb 6 '12 at 5:11
What book is that exercise from?
– Rhaldryn
Jan 22 '17 at 17:43
add a comment |
So I'm studying linear algebra and one of the self-study exercises has a set of true or false questions. One of the question is this:
If $A^2 = I$ (Identity Matrix) Then $A = pm I$ ?
I'm pretty sure it is true but the answer say it's false. How can this be false (maybe its a typography error on the book)?
linear-algebra matrices examples-counterexamples
So I'm studying linear algebra and one of the self-study exercises has a set of true or false questions. One of the question is this:
If $A^2 = I$ (Identity Matrix) Then $A = pm I$ ?
I'm pretty sure it is true but the answer say it's false. How can this be false (maybe its a typography error on the book)?
linear-algebra matrices examples-counterexamples
linear-algebra matrices examples-counterexamples
edited Nov 30 at 15:19
Abcd
3,00121132
3,00121132
asked Feb 5 '12 at 20:11
Randolf Rincón Fadul
3901519
3901519
24
Try $$ A = begin{pmatrix} 0 & 1 \ 1 & 0 end{pmatrix}. $$
– Dylan Moreland
Feb 5 '12 at 20:13
1
I'd point out that it is true if you're working with $1$-by-$1$ matrices (over $mathbb C$, or any other integral domain). But for $n geq 2$ the ring of $n$-by-$n$ matrices over any non-trivial ring is not an integral domain: this means that $(A+I)(A-I) = 0$ doesn't necessarily imply that $A + I = 0 $ or $A - I = 0$.
– Matt
Feb 5 '12 at 20:30
possible duplicate of Finding number of matrices whose square is the identity matrix
– Jonas Meyer
Feb 5 '12 at 20:56
There's an entire family of so-called involutory matrices. Look up Householder reflectors, for instance.
– J. M. is not a mathematician
Feb 6 '12 at 5:11
What book is that exercise from?
– Rhaldryn
Jan 22 '17 at 17:43
add a comment |
24
Try $$ A = begin{pmatrix} 0 & 1 \ 1 & 0 end{pmatrix}. $$
– Dylan Moreland
Feb 5 '12 at 20:13
1
I'd point out that it is true if you're working with $1$-by-$1$ matrices (over $mathbb C$, or any other integral domain). But for $n geq 2$ the ring of $n$-by-$n$ matrices over any non-trivial ring is not an integral domain: this means that $(A+I)(A-I) = 0$ doesn't necessarily imply that $A + I = 0 $ or $A - I = 0$.
– Matt
Feb 5 '12 at 20:30
possible duplicate of Finding number of matrices whose square is the identity matrix
– Jonas Meyer
Feb 5 '12 at 20:56
There's an entire family of so-called involutory matrices. Look up Householder reflectors, for instance.
– J. M. is not a mathematician
Feb 6 '12 at 5:11
What book is that exercise from?
– Rhaldryn
Jan 22 '17 at 17:43
24
24
Try $$ A = begin{pmatrix} 0 & 1 \ 1 & 0 end{pmatrix}. $$
– Dylan Moreland
Feb 5 '12 at 20:13
Try $$ A = begin{pmatrix} 0 & 1 \ 1 & 0 end{pmatrix}. $$
– Dylan Moreland
Feb 5 '12 at 20:13
1
1
I'd point out that it is true if you're working with $1$-by-$1$ matrices (over $mathbb C$, or any other integral domain). But for $n geq 2$ the ring of $n$-by-$n$ matrices over any non-trivial ring is not an integral domain: this means that $(A+I)(A-I) = 0$ doesn't necessarily imply that $A + I = 0 $ or $A - I = 0$.
– Matt
Feb 5 '12 at 20:30
I'd point out that it is true if you're working with $1$-by-$1$ matrices (over $mathbb C$, or any other integral domain). But for $n geq 2$ the ring of $n$-by-$n$ matrices over any non-trivial ring is not an integral domain: this means that $(A+I)(A-I) = 0$ doesn't necessarily imply that $A + I = 0 $ or $A - I = 0$.
– Matt
Feb 5 '12 at 20:30
possible duplicate of Finding number of matrices whose square is the identity matrix
– Jonas Meyer
Feb 5 '12 at 20:56
possible duplicate of Finding number of matrices whose square is the identity matrix
– Jonas Meyer
Feb 5 '12 at 20:56
There's an entire family of so-called involutory matrices. Look up Householder reflectors, for instance.
– J. M. is not a mathematician
Feb 6 '12 at 5:11
There's an entire family of so-called involutory matrices. Look up Householder reflectors, for instance.
– J. M. is not a mathematician
Feb 6 '12 at 5:11
What book is that exercise from?
– Rhaldryn
Jan 22 '17 at 17:43
What book is that exercise from?
– Rhaldryn
Jan 22 '17 at 17:43
add a comment |
5 Answers
5
active
oldest
votes
A simple counterexample is $$A = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 \ 0 & -1 end{bmatrix} $$ We have $A neq pm I$, but $A^{2} = I$.
add a comment |
In dimension $geq 2$ take the matrix that exchanges two basis vectors ("a transposition")
If you want to exchange the (standard) basis vectors $e_{i}$ and $e_{j}$ ($1 leq i,j leq n$), then use the matrix $A = [m_{ij}]$ with $m_{kk} = 1, kneq i,j$, $m_{ij} = m_{ji} = 1$ and $m_{kl} = 0$ for all other values of $k$ and $l$. For example, if you want $e_2$ and $e_3$ exhanged in $mathbb{R}^{3}$, take $$A = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 & 0 \ 0 & 0 & 1 \ 0 & 1 & 0 end{bmatrix}$$ It is clear that such a matrix always satisfies $A^2 = I$, since applying it twice always gets you back to where you started.
– Martin Wanvik
Feb 5 '12 at 21:01
Thank you @Martin Wanvik, pretty clear explanation.
– Randolf Rincón Fadul
Feb 5 '12 at 21:52
add a comment |
I know $2·mathbb C^2$ many counterexamples, namely
$$A=c_1begin{pmatrix}
0&1\
1&0
end{pmatrix}+c_2begin{pmatrix}
1&0\
0&-1
end{pmatrix}pmsqrt{c_1^2+c_2^2pm1}begin{pmatrix}
0&-1\
1&0
end{pmatrix},$$
see Pauli Matrices $sigma_i$.
These are all such matrices and can be written as $A=vec e· vec sigma$, where $vec e^2=pm1$.
add a comment |
The following matrix is a conterexample $
A =
left( {begin{array}{cc}
-1 & 0 \
0 & 1 \
end{array} } right)
$
add a comment |
"Most" (read: diagonalizable) matrices can be viewed simply as a list of numbers -- its eigenvalues -- in the right basis. When doing arithmetic with just this matrix (or with other matrices that diagonalize in the same basis), you just do arithmetic on the eigenvalues.
So, to find diagonalizable solutions to $A^2 = I$, we just need to write down a matrix whose eigenvalues satisfy $lambda^2 = 1$ -- and any such matrix will do.
When thinking about matrices in this way -- as a list of independent numbers -- it makes it easy to think your way through problems like this.
1
Every matrix satisfying $A^2=I$ is diagonalizable, because either it is $pm I$ or its minimal polynomial is $(x-1)(x+1)$. The general solution is obtained by taking all diagonal matrices with entries $pm 1$ on the diagonal and conjugating by invertible matrices.
– Jonas Meyer
Feb 6 '12 at 5:03
2
Jonas Meyer, this is only true if $char F ne 2$. Otherwise, there are such matrices which are not diagonalizable,
– the L
Feb 6 '12 at 8:18
1
@Jonas: That's a good point to mention as an appendix, but dealing properly with non-diagonalizable matrices in this fashion is somewhat more sophisticated. The only reason I mentioned the word was so that I didn't mislead Randolf into thinking this method works (unmodified) for all matrices; e.g. that the argument I gave isn't sufficient to tell us that this (or any!) equation has only diagonalizable solutions.
– Hurkyl
Feb 6 '12 at 9:53
1
@anonymous: Good point, e.g. $begin{bmatrix}1&1\ 0&1end{bmatrix}$. @@Hurkyl: I agree, it is best as an appendix. I appreciate your caution, but wanted to point out that your method does lead to the general solution (in the characteristic $0$ case that the OP is probably working in).
– Jonas Meyer
Feb 6 '12 at 15:49
add a comment |
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5 Answers
5
active
oldest
votes
5 Answers
5
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
A simple counterexample is $$A = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 \ 0 & -1 end{bmatrix} $$ We have $A neq pm I$, but $A^{2} = I$.
add a comment |
A simple counterexample is $$A = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 \ 0 & -1 end{bmatrix} $$ We have $A neq pm I$, but $A^{2} = I$.
add a comment |
A simple counterexample is $$A = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 \ 0 & -1 end{bmatrix} $$ We have $A neq pm I$, but $A^{2} = I$.
A simple counterexample is $$A = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 \ 0 & -1 end{bmatrix} $$ We have $A neq pm I$, but $A^{2} = I$.
answered Feb 5 '12 at 20:15
Martin Wanvik
2,5621215
2,5621215
add a comment |
add a comment |
In dimension $geq 2$ take the matrix that exchanges two basis vectors ("a transposition")
If you want to exchange the (standard) basis vectors $e_{i}$ and $e_{j}$ ($1 leq i,j leq n$), then use the matrix $A = [m_{ij}]$ with $m_{kk} = 1, kneq i,j$, $m_{ij} = m_{ji} = 1$ and $m_{kl} = 0$ for all other values of $k$ and $l$. For example, if you want $e_2$ and $e_3$ exhanged in $mathbb{R}^{3}$, take $$A = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 & 0 \ 0 & 0 & 1 \ 0 & 1 & 0 end{bmatrix}$$ It is clear that such a matrix always satisfies $A^2 = I$, since applying it twice always gets you back to where you started.
– Martin Wanvik
Feb 5 '12 at 21:01
Thank you @Martin Wanvik, pretty clear explanation.
– Randolf Rincón Fadul
Feb 5 '12 at 21:52
add a comment |
In dimension $geq 2$ take the matrix that exchanges two basis vectors ("a transposition")
If you want to exchange the (standard) basis vectors $e_{i}$ and $e_{j}$ ($1 leq i,j leq n$), then use the matrix $A = [m_{ij}]$ with $m_{kk} = 1, kneq i,j$, $m_{ij} = m_{ji} = 1$ and $m_{kl} = 0$ for all other values of $k$ and $l$. For example, if you want $e_2$ and $e_3$ exhanged in $mathbb{R}^{3}$, take $$A = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 & 0 \ 0 & 0 & 1 \ 0 & 1 & 0 end{bmatrix}$$ It is clear that such a matrix always satisfies $A^2 = I$, since applying it twice always gets you back to where you started.
– Martin Wanvik
Feb 5 '12 at 21:01
Thank you @Martin Wanvik, pretty clear explanation.
– Randolf Rincón Fadul
Feb 5 '12 at 21:52
add a comment |
In dimension $geq 2$ take the matrix that exchanges two basis vectors ("a transposition")
In dimension $geq 2$ take the matrix that exchanges two basis vectors ("a transposition")
answered Feb 5 '12 at 20:16
Blah
4,242915
4,242915
If you want to exchange the (standard) basis vectors $e_{i}$ and $e_{j}$ ($1 leq i,j leq n$), then use the matrix $A = [m_{ij}]$ with $m_{kk} = 1, kneq i,j$, $m_{ij} = m_{ji} = 1$ and $m_{kl} = 0$ for all other values of $k$ and $l$. For example, if you want $e_2$ and $e_3$ exhanged in $mathbb{R}^{3}$, take $$A = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 & 0 \ 0 & 0 & 1 \ 0 & 1 & 0 end{bmatrix}$$ It is clear that such a matrix always satisfies $A^2 = I$, since applying it twice always gets you back to where you started.
– Martin Wanvik
Feb 5 '12 at 21:01
Thank you @Martin Wanvik, pretty clear explanation.
– Randolf Rincón Fadul
Feb 5 '12 at 21:52
add a comment |
If you want to exchange the (standard) basis vectors $e_{i}$ and $e_{j}$ ($1 leq i,j leq n$), then use the matrix $A = [m_{ij}]$ with $m_{kk} = 1, kneq i,j$, $m_{ij} = m_{ji} = 1$ and $m_{kl} = 0$ for all other values of $k$ and $l$. For example, if you want $e_2$ and $e_3$ exhanged in $mathbb{R}^{3}$, take $$A = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 & 0 \ 0 & 0 & 1 \ 0 & 1 & 0 end{bmatrix}$$ It is clear that such a matrix always satisfies $A^2 = I$, since applying it twice always gets you back to where you started.
– Martin Wanvik
Feb 5 '12 at 21:01
Thank you @Martin Wanvik, pretty clear explanation.
– Randolf Rincón Fadul
Feb 5 '12 at 21:52
If you want to exchange the (standard) basis vectors $e_{i}$ and $e_{j}$ ($1 leq i,j leq n$), then use the matrix $A = [m_{ij}]$ with $m_{kk} = 1, kneq i,j$, $m_{ij} = m_{ji} = 1$ and $m_{kl} = 0$ for all other values of $k$ and $l$. For example, if you want $e_2$ and $e_3$ exhanged in $mathbb{R}^{3}$, take $$A = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 & 0 \ 0 & 0 & 1 \ 0 & 1 & 0 end{bmatrix}$$ It is clear that such a matrix always satisfies $A^2 = I$, since applying it twice always gets you back to where you started.
– Martin Wanvik
Feb 5 '12 at 21:01
If you want to exchange the (standard) basis vectors $e_{i}$ and $e_{j}$ ($1 leq i,j leq n$), then use the matrix $A = [m_{ij}]$ with $m_{kk} = 1, kneq i,j$, $m_{ij} = m_{ji} = 1$ and $m_{kl} = 0$ for all other values of $k$ and $l$. For example, if you want $e_2$ and $e_3$ exhanged in $mathbb{R}^{3}$, take $$A = begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 & 0 \ 0 & 0 & 1 \ 0 & 1 & 0 end{bmatrix}$$ It is clear that such a matrix always satisfies $A^2 = I$, since applying it twice always gets you back to where you started.
– Martin Wanvik
Feb 5 '12 at 21:01
Thank you @Martin Wanvik, pretty clear explanation.
– Randolf Rincón Fadul
Feb 5 '12 at 21:52
Thank you @Martin Wanvik, pretty clear explanation.
– Randolf Rincón Fadul
Feb 5 '12 at 21:52
add a comment |
I know $2·mathbb C^2$ many counterexamples, namely
$$A=c_1begin{pmatrix}
0&1\
1&0
end{pmatrix}+c_2begin{pmatrix}
1&0\
0&-1
end{pmatrix}pmsqrt{c_1^2+c_2^2pm1}begin{pmatrix}
0&-1\
1&0
end{pmatrix},$$
see Pauli Matrices $sigma_i$.
These are all such matrices and can be written as $A=vec e· vec sigma$, where $vec e^2=pm1$.
add a comment |
I know $2·mathbb C^2$ many counterexamples, namely
$$A=c_1begin{pmatrix}
0&1\
1&0
end{pmatrix}+c_2begin{pmatrix}
1&0\
0&-1
end{pmatrix}pmsqrt{c_1^2+c_2^2pm1}begin{pmatrix}
0&-1\
1&0
end{pmatrix},$$
see Pauli Matrices $sigma_i$.
These are all such matrices and can be written as $A=vec e· vec sigma$, where $vec e^2=pm1$.
add a comment |
I know $2·mathbb C^2$ many counterexamples, namely
$$A=c_1begin{pmatrix}
0&1\
1&0
end{pmatrix}+c_2begin{pmatrix}
1&0\
0&-1
end{pmatrix}pmsqrt{c_1^2+c_2^2pm1}begin{pmatrix}
0&-1\
1&0
end{pmatrix},$$
see Pauli Matrices $sigma_i$.
These are all such matrices and can be written as $A=vec e· vec sigma$, where $vec e^2=pm1$.
I know $2·mathbb C^2$ many counterexamples, namely
$$A=c_1begin{pmatrix}
0&1\
1&0
end{pmatrix}+c_2begin{pmatrix}
1&0\
0&-1
end{pmatrix}pmsqrt{c_1^2+c_2^2pm1}begin{pmatrix}
0&-1\
1&0
end{pmatrix},$$
see Pauli Matrices $sigma_i$.
These are all such matrices and can be written as $A=vec e· vec sigma$, where $vec e^2=pm1$.
edited Feb 6 '12 at 18:40
answered Feb 5 '12 at 20:57
Nikolaj-K
5,76223068
5,76223068
add a comment |
add a comment |
The following matrix is a conterexample $
A =
left( {begin{array}{cc}
-1 & 0 \
0 & 1 \
end{array} } right)
$
add a comment |
The following matrix is a conterexample $
A =
left( {begin{array}{cc}
-1 & 0 \
0 & 1 \
end{array} } right)
$
add a comment |
The following matrix is a conterexample $
A =
left( {begin{array}{cc}
-1 & 0 \
0 & 1 \
end{array} } right)
$
The following matrix is a conterexample $
A =
left( {begin{array}{cc}
-1 & 0 \
0 & 1 \
end{array} } right)
$
answered Feb 5 '12 at 20:20
azarel
11.1k22431
11.1k22431
add a comment |
add a comment |
"Most" (read: diagonalizable) matrices can be viewed simply as a list of numbers -- its eigenvalues -- in the right basis. When doing arithmetic with just this matrix (or with other matrices that diagonalize in the same basis), you just do arithmetic on the eigenvalues.
So, to find diagonalizable solutions to $A^2 = I$, we just need to write down a matrix whose eigenvalues satisfy $lambda^2 = 1$ -- and any such matrix will do.
When thinking about matrices in this way -- as a list of independent numbers -- it makes it easy to think your way through problems like this.
1
Every matrix satisfying $A^2=I$ is diagonalizable, because either it is $pm I$ or its minimal polynomial is $(x-1)(x+1)$. The general solution is obtained by taking all diagonal matrices with entries $pm 1$ on the diagonal and conjugating by invertible matrices.
– Jonas Meyer
Feb 6 '12 at 5:03
2
Jonas Meyer, this is only true if $char F ne 2$. Otherwise, there are such matrices which are not diagonalizable,
– the L
Feb 6 '12 at 8:18
1
@Jonas: That's a good point to mention as an appendix, but dealing properly with non-diagonalizable matrices in this fashion is somewhat more sophisticated. The only reason I mentioned the word was so that I didn't mislead Randolf into thinking this method works (unmodified) for all matrices; e.g. that the argument I gave isn't sufficient to tell us that this (or any!) equation has only diagonalizable solutions.
– Hurkyl
Feb 6 '12 at 9:53
1
@anonymous: Good point, e.g. $begin{bmatrix}1&1\ 0&1end{bmatrix}$. @@Hurkyl: I agree, it is best as an appendix. I appreciate your caution, but wanted to point out that your method does lead to the general solution (in the characteristic $0$ case that the OP is probably working in).
– Jonas Meyer
Feb 6 '12 at 15:49
add a comment |
"Most" (read: diagonalizable) matrices can be viewed simply as a list of numbers -- its eigenvalues -- in the right basis. When doing arithmetic with just this matrix (or with other matrices that diagonalize in the same basis), you just do arithmetic on the eigenvalues.
So, to find diagonalizable solutions to $A^2 = I$, we just need to write down a matrix whose eigenvalues satisfy $lambda^2 = 1$ -- and any such matrix will do.
When thinking about matrices in this way -- as a list of independent numbers -- it makes it easy to think your way through problems like this.
1
Every matrix satisfying $A^2=I$ is diagonalizable, because either it is $pm I$ or its minimal polynomial is $(x-1)(x+1)$. The general solution is obtained by taking all diagonal matrices with entries $pm 1$ on the diagonal and conjugating by invertible matrices.
– Jonas Meyer
Feb 6 '12 at 5:03
2
Jonas Meyer, this is only true if $char F ne 2$. Otherwise, there are such matrices which are not diagonalizable,
– the L
Feb 6 '12 at 8:18
1
@Jonas: That's a good point to mention as an appendix, but dealing properly with non-diagonalizable matrices in this fashion is somewhat more sophisticated. The only reason I mentioned the word was so that I didn't mislead Randolf into thinking this method works (unmodified) for all matrices; e.g. that the argument I gave isn't sufficient to tell us that this (or any!) equation has only diagonalizable solutions.
– Hurkyl
Feb 6 '12 at 9:53
1
@anonymous: Good point, e.g. $begin{bmatrix}1&1\ 0&1end{bmatrix}$. @@Hurkyl: I agree, it is best as an appendix. I appreciate your caution, but wanted to point out that your method does lead to the general solution (in the characteristic $0$ case that the OP is probably working in).
– Jonas Meyer
Feb 6 '12 at 15:49
add a comment |
"Most" (read: diagonalizable) matrices can be viewed simply as a list of numbers -- its eigenvalues -- in the right basis. When doing arithmetic with just this matrix (or with other matrices that diagonalize in the same basis), you just do arithmetic on the eigenvalues.
So, to find diagonalizable solutions to $A^2 = I$, we just need to write down a matrix whose eigenvalues satisfy $lambda^2 = 1$ -- and any such matrix will do.
When thinking about matrices in this way -- as a list of independent numbers -- it makes it easy to think your way through problems like this.
"Most" (read: diagonalizable) matrices can be viewed simply as a list of numbers -- its eigenvalues -- in the right basis. When doing arithmetic with just this matrix (or with other matrices that diagonalize in the same basis), you just do arithmetic on the eigenvalues.
So, to find diagonalizable solutions to $A^2 = I$, we just need to write down a matrix whose eigenvalues satisfy $lambda^2 = 1$ -- and any such matrix will do.
When thinking about matrices in this way -- as a list of independent numbers -- it makes it easy to think your way through problems like this.
answered Feb 6 '12 at 4:56
Hurkyl
111k9117259
111k9117259
1
Every matrix satisfying $A^2=I$ is diagonalizable, because either it is $pm I$ or its minimal polynomial is $(x-1)(x+1)$. The general solution is obtained by taking all diagonal matrices with entries $pm 1$ on the diagonal and conjugating by invertible matrices.
– Jonas Meyer
Feb 6 '12 at 5:03
2
Jonas Meyer, this is only true if $char F ne 2$. Otherwise, there are such matrices which are not diagonalizable,
– the L
Feb 6 '12 at 8:18
1
@Jonas: That's a good point to mention as an appendix, but dealing properly with non-diagonalizable matrices in this fashion is somewhat more sophisticated. The only reason I mentioned the word was so that I didn't mislead Randolf into thinking this method works (unmodified) for all matrices; e.g. that the argument I gave isn't sufficient to tell us that this (or any!) equation has only diagonalizable solutions.
– Hurkyl
Feb 6 '12 at 9:53
1
@anonymous: Good point, e.g. $begin{bmatrix}1&1\ 0&1end{bmatrix}$. @@Hurkyl: I agree, it is best as an appendix. I appreciate your caution, but wanted to point out that your method does lead to the general solution (in the characteristic $0$ case that the OP is probably working in).
– Jonas Meyer
Feb 6 '12 at 15:49
add a comment |
1
Every matrix satisfying $A^2=I$ is diagonalizable, because either it is $pm I$ or its minimal polynomial is $(x-1)(x+1)$. The general solution is obtained by taking all diagonal matrices with entries $pm 1$ on the diagonal and conjugating by invertible matrices.
– Jonas Meyer
Feb 6 '12 at 5:03
2
Jonas Meyer, this is only true if $char F ne 2$. Otherwise, there are such matrices which are not diagonalizable,
– the L
Feb 6 '12 at 8:18
1
@Jonas: That's a good point to mention as an appendix, but dealing properly with non-diagonalizable matrices in this fashion is somewhat more sophisticated. The only reason I mentioned the word was so that I didn't mislead Randolf into thinking this method works (unmodified) for all matrices; e.g. that the argument I gave isn't sufficient to tell us that this (or any!) equation has only diagonalizable solutions.
– Hurkyl
Feb 6 '12 at 9:53
1
@anonymous: Good point, e.g. $begin{bmatrix}1&1\ 0&1end{bmatrix}$. @@Hurkyl: I agree, it is best as an appendix. I appreciate your caution, but wanted to point out that your method does lead to the general solution (in the characteristic $0$ case that the OP is probably working in).
– Jonas Meyer
Feb 6 '12 at 15:49
1
1
Every matrix satisfying $A^2=I$ is diagonalizable, because either it is $pm I$ or its minimal polynomial is $(x-1)(x+1)$. The general solution is obtained by taking all diagonal matrices with entries $pm 1$ on the diagonal and conjugating by invertible matrices.
– Jonas Meyer
Feb 6 '12 at 5:03
Every matrix satisfying $A^2=I$ is diagonalizable, because either it is $pm I$ or its minimal polynomial is $(x-1)(x+1)$. The general solution is obtained by taking all diagonal matrices with entries $pm 1$ on the diagonal and conjugating by invertible matrices.
– Jonas Meyer
Feb 6 '12 at 5:03
2
2
Jonas Meyer, this is only true if $char F ne 2$. Otherwise, there are such matrices which are not diagonalizable,
– the L
Feb 6 '12 at 8:18
Jonas Meyer, this is only true if $char F ne 2$. Otherwise, there are such matrices which are not diagonalizable,
– the L
Feb 6 '12 at 8:18
1
1
@Jonas: That's a good point to mention as an appendix, but dealing properly with non-diagonalizable matrices in this fashion is somewhat more sophisticated. The only reason I mentioned the word was so that I didn't mislead Randolf into thinking this method works (unmodified) for all matrices; e.g. that the argument I gave isn't sufficient to tell us that this (or any!) equation has only diagonalizable solutions.
– Hurkyl
Feb 6 '12 at 9:53
@Jonas: That's a good point to mention as an appendix, but dealing properly with non-diagonalizable matrices in this fashion is somewhat more sophisticated. The only reason I mentioned the word was so that I didn't mislead Randolf into thinking this method works (unmodified) for all matrices; e.g. that the argument I gave isn't sufficient to tell us that this (or any!) equation has only diagonalizable solutions.
– Hurkyl
Feb 6 '12 at 9:53
1
1
@anonymous: Good point, e.g. $begin{bmatrix}1&1\ 0&1end{bmatrix}$. @@Hurkyl: I agree, it is best as an appendix. I appreciate your caution, but wanted to point out that your method does lead to the general solution (in the characteristic $0$ case that the OP is probably working in).
– Jonas Meyer
Feb 6 '12 at 15:49
@anonymous: Good point, e.g. $begin{bmatrix}1&1\ 0&1end{bmatrix}$. @@Hurkyl: I agree, it is best as an appendix. I appreciate your caution, but wanted to point out that your method does lead to the general solution (in the characteristic $0$ case that the OP is probably working in).
– Jonas Meyer
Feb 6 '12 at 15:49
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24
Try $$ A = begin{pmatrix} 0 & 1 \ 1 & 0 end{pmatrix}. $$
– Dylan Moreland
Feb 5 '12 at 20:13
1
I'd point out that it is true if you're working with $1$-by-$1$ matrices (over $mathbb C$, or any other integral domain). But for $n geq 2$ the ring of $n$-by-$n$ matrices over any non-trivial ring is not an integral domain: this means that $(A+I)(A-I) = 0$ doesn't necessarily imply that $A + I = 0 $ or $A - I = 0$.
– Matt
Feb 5 '12 at 20:30
possible duplicate of Finding number of matrices whose square is the identity matrix
– Jonas Meyer
Feb 5 '12 at 20:56
There's an entire family of so-called involutory matrices. Look up Householder reflectors, for instance.
– J. M. is not a mathematician
Feb 6 '12 at 5:11
What book is that exercise from?
– Rhaldryn
Jan 22 '17 at 17:43