Inverse function of a polynomial
up vote
11
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What is the inverse function of $f(x) = x^5 + 2x^3 + x - 1?$ I have no idea how to find the inverse of a polynomial, so I would greatly appreciate it if someone could show me the steps to solving this problem. Thank you in advance!
polynomials inverse
add a comment |
up vote
11
down vote
favorite
What is the inverse function of $f(x) = x^5 + 2x^3 + x - 1?$ I have no idea how to find the inverse of a polynomial, so I would greatly appreciate it if someone could show me the steps to solving this problem. Thank you in advance!
polynomials inverse
please enclose your math in $ $ to have it typeset nicely
– Valentin
Oct 10 '12 at 21:41
1
Even Mathematica can't find inverse function, but you can be confident - inverse function does exist
– Norbert
Oct 10 '12 at 21:42
8
Your polynomial is increasing, and its range is all reals, so there is an inverse. Finding a pleasant expression for the inverse is another matter. But one can find information about the derivative of the inverse without knowing a formula.
– André Nicolas
Oct 10 '12 at 22:05
I think, it's very hard. Is it homework? Or where is this problem from?
– Berci
Oct 10 '12 at 22:21
This question has been asked before, albeit in greater detail. Most likely we're having trouble answering it because we're missing this information: math.stackexchange.com/questions/85226/…
– Gyu Eun Lee
Dec 15 '12 at 3:42
add a comment |
up vote
11
down vote
favorite
up vote
11
down vote
favorite
What is the inverse function of $f(x) = x^5 + 2x^3 + x - 1?$ I have no idea how to find the inverse of a polynomial, so I would greatly appreciate it if someone could show me the steps to solving this problem. Thank you in advance!
polynomials inverse
What is the inverse function of $f(x) = x^5 + 2x^3 + x - 1?$ I have no idea how to find the inverse of a polynomial, so I would greatly appreciate it if someone could show me the steps to solving this problem. Thank you in advance!
polynomials inverse
polynomials inverse
edited Oct 10 '12 at 21:44
Ross Millikan
288k23195365
288k23195365
asked Oct 10 '12 at 21:37
Jaden M.
107227
107227
please enclose your math in $ $ to have it typeset nicely
– Valentin
Oct 10 '12 at 21:41
1
Even Mathematica can't find inverse function, but you can be confident - inverse function does exist
– Norbert
Oct 10 '12 at 21:42
8
Your polynomial is increasing, and its range is all reals, so there is an inverse. Finding a pleasant expression for the inverse is another matter. But one can find information about the derivative of the inverse without knowing a formula.
– André Nicolas
Oct 10 '12 at 22:05
I think, it's very hard. Is it homework? Or where is this problem from?
– Berci
Oct 10 '12 at 22:21
This question has been asked before, albeit in greater detail. Most likely we're having trouble answering it because we're missing this information: math.stackexchange.com/questions/85226/…
– Gyu Eun Lee
Dec 15 '12 at 3:42
add a comment |
please enclose your math in $ $ to have it typeset nicely
– Valentin
Oct 10 '12 at 21:41
1
Even Mathematica can't find inverse function, but you can be confident - inverse function does exist
– Norbert
Oct 10 '12 at 21:42
8
Your polynomial is increasing, and its range is all reals, so there is an inverse. Finding a pleasant expression for the inverse is another matter. But one can find information about the derivative of the inverse without knowing a formula.
– André Nicolas
Oct 10 '12 at 22:05
I think, it's very hard. Is it homework? Or where is this problem from?
– Berci
Oct 10 '12 at 22:21
This question has been asked before, albeit in greater detail. Most likely we're having trouble answering it because we're missing this information: math.stackexchange.com/questions/85226/…
– Gyu Eun Lee
Dec 15 '12 at 3:42
please enclose your math in $ $ to have it typeset nicely
– Valentin
Oct 10 '12 at 21:41
please enclose your math in $ $ to have it typeset nicely
– Valentin
Oct 10 '12 at 21:41
1
1
Even Mathematica can't find inverse function, but you can be confident - inverse function does exist
– Norbert
Oct 10 '12 at 21:42
Even Mathematica can't find inverse function, but you can be confident - inverse function does exist
– Norbert
Oct 10 '12 at 21:42
8
8
Your polynomial is increasing, and its range is all reals, so there is an inverse. Finding a pleasant expression for the inverse is another matter. But one can find information about the derivative of the inverse without knowing a formula.
– André Nicolas
Oct 10 '12 at 22:05
Your polynomial is increasing, and its range is all reals, so there is an inverse. Finding a pleasant expression for the inverse is another matter. But one can find information about the derivative of the inverse without knowing a formula.
– André Nicolas
Oct 10 '12 at 22:05
I think, it's very hard. Is it homework? Or where is this problem from?
– Berci
Oct 10 '12 at 22:21
I think, it's very hard. Is it homework? Or where is this problem from?
– Berci
Oct 10 '12 at 22:21
This question has been asked before, albeit in greater detail. Most likely we're having trouble answering it because we're missing this information: math.stackexchange.com/questions/85226/…
– Gyu Eun Lee
Dec 15 '12 at 3:42
This question has been asked before, albeit in greater detail. Most likely we're having trouble answering it because we're missing this information: math.stackexchange.com/questions/85226/…
– Gyu Eun Lee
Dec 15 '12 at 3:42
add a comment |
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
up vote
6
down vote
This is an experimental way of working out the inverse.
We can treat the polynomial like an expansion
begin{equation}
f(x) = -1 + x + 0x^2 + 2x^3 + 0x^4 + x^5 + 0x^6 + 0x^7 + cdots
end{equation}
then we can perform a Series Reversion on this to give the inverse series (as an infinite expansion) begin{equation}
f^{-1}(x) = (1+x) -2(1+x)^3 +11(1+x)^5-80(1+x)^7+665(1+x)^9-cdots
end{equation}
at a glance this doesn't seem to helpful, but if we search the coefficients in the OEIS we seem to get a hit! It would appear (conjecture) that the general coefficient is then begin{equation}
a(n) = binom{5n+1}{n}frac{(-1)^n}{2n+1}
end{equation}
and we could write that begin{equation}
f^{-1}(x) = sum_{n=0}^infty binom{5n+1}{n}frac{(-1)^n}{2n+1}(x+1)^{2n+1}
end{equation}
if we evaluate that in Mathematica, it gives begin{equation}
f^{-1}(x)=(1+x);_4F_3left(frac{2}{5},frac{3}{5},frac{4}{5},frac{6}{5}bigg|frac{3}{4},frac{5}{4},frac{6}{4}bigg|-frac{5^5}{4^4}(1+x)^2 right)
end{equation}
a generalised hypergeometric function. If we plot the composition of these two i.e $f(f^{-1}(x))$ or $f^{-1}(f(x))$ the plot seems to indicate begin{equation}
f(f^{-1}(x))=f^{-1}(f(x))=x
end{equation}
of course this is not a proof, and evaluating the inverse function may become numerically unstable if $x$ becomes too large.
add a comment |
up vote
6
down vote
Generally, you say $y=$ your polynomial and solve for $x$. Fifth degree polynomials are generally not solvable. The general approach for a quadratic would be essentially the quadratic formula. Given $y=ax^2+bx+c$, you find $x=frac {-b pm sqrt{b^2-4a(c-y)}}{2a}$. You need to pick one sign to get a function.
Thank you! I will try it again.
– Jaden M.
Oct 10 '12 at 23:47
The solution that is expected to be x = f(y) does not contain y. Substitute c by c-y ?
– h22
Nov 23 at 8:02
@h22: yes, that is correct. Thanks
– Ross Millikan
Nov 23 at 15:07
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
As others indicated, there is no algebraic formula for the inverse function $f^{-1}$. The inverse functions exists (since $f$ is increasing), but there are serious algebraic obstructions to solving $y=x^5 + 2x^3 + x - 1$ for $x$.
But we can find particular values of $f^{-1}$ and of its derivative. For example, to find $f^{-1}(3)$ we would just have to note that $f(1)=3$. Therefore, $f^{-1}(3)=1$. (The number $3$ is lucky here; if asked about $f^{-1}(4)$, one would need a numerical method, e.g., a calculator.)
Also, the inverse function theorem can be used to find the derivative of $f^{-1}$ at $3$:
$$
(f^{-1})'(3) = frac{1}{f'(1)} = frac{1}{5+6+1} = frac{1}{12}
$$
Related question.
add a comment |
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
3 Answers
3
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
6
down vote
This is an experimental way of working out the inverse.
We can treat the polynomial like an expansion
begin{equation}
f(x) = -1 + x + 0x^2 + 2x^3 + 0x^4 + x^5 + 0x^6 + 0x^7 + cdots
end{equation}
then we can perform a Series Reversion on this to give the inverse series (as an infinite expansion) begin{equation}
f^{-1}(x) = (1+x) -2(1+x)^3 +11(1+x)^5-80(1+x)^7+665(1+x)^9-cdots
end{equation}
at a glance this doesn't seem to helpful, but if we search the coefficients in the OEIS we seem to get a hit! It would appear (conjecture) that the general coefficient is then begin{equation}
a(n) = binom{5n+1}{n}frac{(-1)^n}{2n+1}
end{equation}
and we could write that begin{equation}
f^{-1}(x) = sum_{n=0}^infty binom{5n+1}{n}frac{(-1)^n}{2n+1}(x+1)^{2n+1}
end{equation}
if we evaluate that in Mathematica, it gives begin{equation}
f^{-1}(x)=(1+x);_4F_3left(frac{2}{5},frac{3}{5},frac{4}{5},frac{6}{5}bigg|frac{3}{4},frac{5}{4},frac{6}{4}bigg|-frac{5^5}{4^4}(1+x)^2 right)
end{equation}
a generalised hypergeometric function. If we plot the composition of these two i.e $f(f^{-1}(x))$ or $f^{-1}(f(x))$ the plot seems to indicate begin{equation}
f(f^{-1}(x))=f^{-1}(f(x))=x
end{equation}
of course this is not a proof, and evaluating the inverse function may become numerically unstable if $x$ becomes too large.
add a comment |
up vote
6
down vote
This is an experimental way of working out the inverse.
We can treat the polynomial like an expansion
begin{equation}
f(x) = -1 + x + 0x^2 + 2x^3 + 0x^4 + x^5 + 0x^6 + 0x^7 + cdots
end{equation}
then we can perform a Series Reversion on this to give the inverse series (as an infinite expansion) begin{equation}
f^{-1}(x) = (1+x) -2(1+x)^3 +11(1+x)^5-80(1+x)^7+665(1+x)^9-cdots
end{equation}
at a glance this doesn't seem to helpful, but if we search the coefficients in the OEIS we seem to get a hit! It would appear (conjecture) that the general coefficient is then begin{equation}
a(n) = binom{5n+1}{n}frac{(-1)^n}{2n+1}
end{equation}
and we could write that begin{equation}
f^{-1}(x) = sum_{n=0}^infty binom{5n+1}{n}frac{(-1)^n}{2n+1}(x+1)^{2n+1}
end{equation}
if we evaluate that in Mathematica, it gives begin{equation}
f^{-1}(x)=(1+x);_4F_3left(frac{2}{5},frac{3}{5},frac{4}{5},frac{6}{5}bigg|frac{3}{4},frac{5}{4},frac{6}{4}bigg|-frac{5^5}{4^4}(1+x)^2 right)
end{equation}
a generalised hypergeometric function. If we plot the composition of these two i.e $f(f^{-1}(x))$ or $f^{-1}(f(x))$ the plot seems to indicate begin{equation}
f(f^{-1}(x))=f^{-1}(f(x))=x
end{equation}
of course this is not a proof, and evaluating the inverse function may become numerically unstable if $x$ becomes too large.
add a comment |
up vote
6
down vote
up vote
6
down vote
This is an experimental way of working out the inverse.
We can treat the polynomial like an expansion
begin{equation}
f(x) = -1 + x + 0x^2 + 2x^3 + 0x^4 + x^5 + 0x^6 + 0x^7 + cdots
end{equation}
then we can perform a Series Reversion on this to give the inverse series (as an infinite expansion) begin{equation}
f^{-1}(x) = (1+x) -2(1+x)^3 +11(1+x)^5-80(1+x)^7+665(1+x)^9-cdots
end{equation}
at a glance this doesn't seem to helpful, but if we search the coefficients in the OEIS we seem to get a hit! It would appear (conjecture) that the general coefficient is then begin{equation}
a(n) = binom{5n+1}{n}frac{(-1)^n}{2n+1}
end{equation}
and we could write that begin{equation}
f^{-1}(x) = sum_{n=0}^infty binom{5n+1}{n}frac{(-1)^n}{2n+1}(x+1)^{2n+1}
end{equation}
if we evaluate that in Mathematica, it gives begin{equation}
f^{-1}(x)=(1+x);_4F_3left(frac{2}{5},frac{3}{5},frac{4}{5},frac{6}{5}bigg|frac{3}{4},frac{5}{4},frac{6}{4}bigg|-frac{5^5}{4^4}(1+x)^2 right)
end{equation}
a generalised hypergeometric function. If we plot the composition of these two i.e $f(f^{-1}(x))$ or $f^{-1}(f(x))$ the plot seems to indicate begin{equation}
f(f^{-1}(x))=f^{-1}(f(x))=x
end{equation}
of course this is not a proof, and evaluating the inverse function may become numerically unstable if $x$ becomes too large.
This is an experimental way of working out the inverse.
We can treat the polynomial like an expansion
begin{equation}
f(x) = -1 + x + 0x^2 + 2x^3 + 0x^4 + x^5 + 0x^6 + 0x^7 + cdots
end{equation}
then we can perform a Series Reversion on this to give the inverse series (as an infinite expansion) begin{equation}
f^{-1}(x) = (1+x) -2(1+x)^3 +11(1+x)^5-80(1+x)^7+665(1+x)^9-cdots
end{equation}
at a glance this doesn't seem to helpful, but if we search the coefficients in the OEIS we seem to get a hit! It would appear (conjecture) that the general coefficient is then begin{equation}
a(n) = binom{5n+1}{n}frac{(-1)^n}{2n+1}
end{equation}
and we could write that begin{equation}
f^{-1}(x) = sum_{n=0}^infty binom{5n+1}{n}frac{(-1)^n}{2n+1}(x+1)^{2n+1}
end{equation}
if we evaluate that in Mathematica, it gives begin{equation}
f^{-1}(x)=(1+x);_4F_3left(frac{2}{5},frac{3}{5},frac{4}{5},frac{6}{5}bigg|frac{3}{4},frac{5}{4},frac{6}{4}bigg|-frac{5^5}{4^4}(1+x)^2 right)
end{equation}
a generalised hypergeometric function. If we plot the composition of these two i.e $f(f^{-1}(x))$ or $f^{-1}(f(x))$ the plot seems to indicate begin{equation}
f(f^{-1}(x))=f^{-1}(f(x))=x
end{equation}
of course this is not a proof, and evaluating the inverse function may become numerically unstable if $x$ becomes too large.
edited Jan 3 '17 at 17:55
answered Jan 3 '17 at 17:44
Benedict W. J. Irwin
1,463529
1,463529
add a comment |
add a comment |
up vote
6
down vote
Generally, you say $y=$ your polynomial and solve for $x$. Fifth degree polynomials are generally not solvable. The general approach for a quadratic would be essentially the quadratic formula. Given $y=ax^2+bx+c$, you find $x=frac {-b pm sqrt{b^2-4a(c-y)}}{2a}$. You need to pick one sign to get a function.
Thank you! I will try it again.
– Jaden M.
Oct 10 '12 at 23:47
The solution that is expected to be x = f(y) does not contain y. Substitute c by c-y ?
– h22
Nov 23 at 8:02
@h22: yes, that is correct. Thanks
– Ross Millikan
Nov 23 at 15:07
add a comment |
up vote
6
down vote
Generally, you say $y=$ your polynomial and solve for $x$. Fifth degree polynomials are generally not solvable. The general approach for a quadratic would be essentially the quadratic formula. Given $y=ax^2+bx+c$, you find $x=frac {-b pm sqrt{b^2-4a(c-y)}}{2a}$. You need to pick one sign to get a function.
Thank you! I will try it again.
– Jaden M.
Oct 10 '12 at 23:47
The solution that is expected to be x = f(y) does not contain y. Substitute c by c-y ?
– h22
Nov 23 at 8:02
@h22: yes, that is correct. Thanks
– Ross Millikan
Nov 23 at 15:07
add a comment |
up vote
6
down vote
up vote
6
down vote
Generally, you say $y=$ your polynomial and solve for $x$. Fifth degree polynomials are generally not solvable. The general approach for a quadratic would be essentially the quadratic formula. Given $y=ax^2+bx+c$, you find $x=frac {-b pm sqrt{b^2-4a(c-y)}}{2a}$. You need to pick one sign to get a function.
Generally, you say $y=$ your polynomial and solve for $x$. Fifth degree polynomials are generally not solvable. The general approach for a quadratic would be essentially the quadratic formula. Given $y=ax^2+bx+c$, you find $x=frac {-b pm sqrt{b^2-4a(c-y)}}{2a}$. You need to pick one sign to get a function.
edited Nov 23 at 15:07
answered Oct 10 '12 at 21:47
Ross Millikan
288k23195365
288k23195365
Thank you! I will try it again.
– Jaden M.
Oct 10 '12 at 23:47
The solution that is expected to be x = f(y) does not contain y. Substitute c by c-y ?
– h22
Nov 23 at 8:02
@h22: yes, that is correct. Thanks
– Ross Millikan
Nov 23 at 15:07
add a comment |
Thank you! I will try it again.
– Jaden M.
Oct 10 '12 at 23:47
The solution that is expected to be x = f(y) does not contain y. Substitute c by c-y ?
– h22
Nov 23 at 8:02
@h22: yes, that is correct. Thanks
– Ross Millikan
Nov 23 at 15:07
Thank you! I will try it again.
– Jaden M.
Oct 10 '12 at 23:47
Thank you! I will try it again.
– Jaden M.
Oct 10 '12 at 23:47
The solution that is expected to be x = f(y) does not contain y. Substitute c by c-y ?
– h22
Nov 23 at 8:02
The solution that is expected to be x = f(y) does not contain y. Substitute c by c-y ?
– h22
Nov 23 at 8:02
@h22: yes, that is correct. Thanks
– Ross Millikan
Nov 23 at 15:07
@h22: yes, that is correct. Thanks
– Ross Millikan
Nov 23 at 15:07
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
As others indicated, there is no algebraic formula for the inverse function $f^{-1}$. The inverse functions exists (since $f$ is increasing), but there are serious algebraic obstructions to solving $y=x^5 + 2x^3 + x - 1$ for $x$.
But we can find particular values of $f^{-1}$ and of its derivative. For example, to find $f^{-1}(3)$ we would just have to note that $f(1)=3$. Therefore, $f^{-1}(3)=1$. (The number $3$ is lucky here; if asked about $f^{-1}(4)$, one would need a numerical method, e.g., a calculator.)
Also, the inverse function theorem can be used to find the derivative of $f^{-1}$ at $3$:
$$
(f^{-1})'(3) = frac{1}{f'(1)} = frac{1}{5+6+1} = frac{1}{12}
$$
Related question.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
As others indicated, there is no algebraic formula for the inverse function $f^{-1}$. The inverse functions exists (since $f$ is increasing), but there are serious algebraic obstructions to solving $y=x^5 + 2x^3 + x - 1$ for $x$.
But we can find particular values of $f^{-1}$ and of its derivative. For example, to find $f^{-1}(3)$ we would just have to note that $f(1)=3$. Therefore, $f^{-1}(3)=1$. (The number $3$ is lucky here; if asked about $f^{-1}(4)$, one would need a numerical method, e.g., a calculator.)
Also, the inverse function theorem can be used to find the derivative of $f^{-1}$ at $3$:
$$
(f^{-1})'(3) = frac{1}{f'(1)} = frac{1}{5+6+1} = frac{1}{12}
$$
Related question.
add a comment |
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
As others indicated, there is no algebraic formula for the inverse function $f^{-1}$. The inverse functions exists (since $f$ is increasing), but there are serious algebraic obstructions to solving $y=x^5 + 2x^3 + x - 1$ for $x$.
But we can find particular values of $f^{-1}$ and of its derivative. For example, to find $f^{-1}(3)$ we would just have to note that $f(1)=3$. Therefore, $f^{-1}(3)=1$. (The number $3$ is lucky here; if asked about $f^{-1}(4)$, one would need a numerical method, e.g., a calculator.)
Also, the inverse function theorem can be used to find the derivative of $f^{-1}$ at $3$:
$$
(f^{-1})'(3) = frac{1}{f'(1)} = frac{1}{5+6+1} = frac{1}{12}
$$
Related question.
As others indicated, there is no algebraic formula for the inverse function $f^{-1}$. The inverse functions exists (since $f$ is increasing), but there are serious algebraic obstructions to solving $y=x^5 + 2x^3 + x - 1$ for $x$.
But we can find particular values of $f^{-1}$ and of its derivative. For example, to find $f^{-1}(3)$ we would just have to note that $f(1)=3$. Therefore, $f^{-1}(3)=1$. (The number $3$ is lucky here; if asked about $f^{-1}(4)$, one would need a numerical method, e.g., a calculator.)
Also, the inverse function theorem can be used to find the derivative of $f^{-1}$ at $3$:
$$
(f^{-1})'(3) = frac{1}{f'(1)} = frac{1}{5+6+1} = frac{1}{12}
$$
Related question.
edited Apr 13 '17 at 12:19
community wiki
2 revs
user147263
add a comment |
add a comment |
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please enclose your math in $ $ to have it typeset nicely
– Valentin
Oct 10 '12 at 21:41
1
Even Mathematica can't find inverse function, but you can be confident - inverse function does exist
– Norbert
Oct 10 '12 at 21:42
8
Your polynomial is increasing, and its range is all reals, so there is an inverse. Finding a pleasant expression for the inverse is another matter. But one can find information about the derivative of the inverse without knowing a formula.
– André Nicolas
Oct 10 '12 at 22:05
I think, it's very hard. Is it homework? Or where is this problem from?
– Berci
Oct 10 '12 at 22:21
This question has been asked before, albeit in greater detail. Most likely we're having trouble answering it because we're missing this information: math.stackexchange.com/questions/85226/…
– Gyu Eun Lee
Dec 15 '12 at 3:42