Inverse function of a polynomial











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What is the inverse function of $f(x) = x^5 + 2x^3 + x - 1?$ I have no idea how to find the inverse of a polynomial, so I would greatly appreciate it if someone could show me the steps to solving this problem. Thank you in advance!










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  • please enclose your math in $ $ to have it typeset nicely
    – Valentin
    Oct 10 '12 at 21:41








  • 1




    Even Mathematica can't find inverse function, but you can be confident - inverse function does exist
    – Norbert
    Oct 10 '12 at 21:42






  • 8




    Your polynomial is increasing, and its range is all reals, so there is an inverse. Finding a pleasant expression for the inverse is another matter. But one can find information about the derivative of the inverse without knowing a formula.
    – André Nicolas
    Oct 10 '12 at 22:05










  • I think, it's very hard. Is it homework? Or where is this problem from?
    – Berci
    Oct 10 '12 at 22:21










  • This question has been asked before, albeit in greater detail. Most likely we're having trouble answering it because we're missing this information: math.stackexchange.com/questions/85226/…
    – Gyu Eun Lee
    Dec 15 '12 at 3:42















up vote
11
down vote

favorite
3












What is the inverse function of $f(x) = x^5 + 2x^3 + x - 1?$ I have no idea how to find the inverse of a polynomial, so I would greatly appreciate it if someone could show me the steps to solving this problem. Thank you in advance!










share|cite|improve this question
























  • please enclose your math in $ $ to have it typeset nicely
    – Valentin
    Oct 10 '12 at 21:41








  • 1




    Even Mathematica can't find inverse function, but you can be confident - inverse function does exist
    – Norbert
    Oct 10 '12 at 21:42






  • 8




    Your polynomial is increasing, and its range is all reals, so there is an inverse. Finding a pleasant expression for the inverse is another matter. But one can find information about the derivative of the inverse without knowing a formula.
    – André Nicolas
    Oct 10 '12 at 22:05










  • I think, it's very hard. Is it homework? Or where is this problem from?
    – Berci
    Oct 10 '12 at 22:21










  • This question has been asked before, albeit in greater detail. Most likely we're having trouble answering it because we're missing this information: math.stackexchange.com/questions/85226/…
    – Gyu Eun Lee
    Dec 15 '12 at 3:42













up vote
11
down vote

favorite
3









up vote
11
down vote

favorite
3






3





What is the inverse function of $f(x) = x^5 + 2x^3 + x - 1?$ I have no idea how to find the inverse of a polynomial, so I would greatly appreciate it if someone could show me the steps to solving this problem. Thank you in advance!










share|cite|improve this question















What is the inverse function of $f(x) = x^5 + 2x^3 + x - 1?$ I have no idea how to find the inverse of a polynomial, so I would greatly appreciate it if someone could show me the steps to solving this problem. Thank you in advance!







polynomials inverse






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edited Oct 10 '12 at 21:44









Ross Millikan

288k23195365




288k23195365










asked Oct 10 '12 at 21:37









Jaden M.

107227




107227












  • please enclose your math in $ $ to have it typeset nicely
    – Valentin
    Oct 10 '12 at 21:41








  • 1




    Even Mathematica can't find inverse function, but you can be confident - inverse function does exist
    – Norbert
    Oct 10 '12 at 21:42






  • 8




    Your polynomial is increasing, and its range is all reals, so there is an inverse. Finding a pleasant expression for the inverse is another matter. But one can find information about the derivative of the inverse without knowing a formula.
    – André Nicolas
    Oct 10 '12 at 22:05










  • I think, it's very hard. Is it homework? Or where is this problem from?
    – Berci
    Oct 10 '12 at 22:21










  • This question has been asked before, albeit in greater detail. Most likely we're having trouble answering it because we're missing this information: math.stackexchange.com/questions/85226/…
    – Gyu Eun Lee
    Dec 15 '12 at 3:42


















  • please enclose your math in $ $ to have it typeset nicely
    – Valentin
    Oct 10 '12 at 21:41








  • 1




    Even Mathematica can't find inverse function, but you can be confident - inverse function does exist
    – Norbert
    Oct 10 '12 at 21:42






  • 8




    Your polynomial is increasing, and its range is all reals, so there is an inverse. Finding a pleasant expression for the inverse is another matter. But one can find information about the derivative of the inverse without knowing a formula.
    – André Nicolas
    Oct 10 '12 at 22:05










  • I think, it's very hard. Is it homework? Or where is this problem from?
    – Berci
    Oct 10 '12 at 22:21










  • This question has been asked before, albeit in greater detail. Most likely we're having trouble answering it because we're missing this information: math.stackexchange.com/questions/85226/…
    – Gyu Eun Lee
    Dec 15 '12 at 3:42
















please enclose your math in $ $ to have it typeset nicely
– Valentin
Oct 10 '12 at 21:41






please enclose your math in $ $ to have it typeset nicely
– Valentin
Oct 10 '12 at 21:41






1




1




Even Mathematica can't find inverse function, but you can be confident - inverse function does exist
– Norbert
Oct 10 '12 at 21:42




Even Mathematica can't find inverse function, but you can be confident - inverse function does exist
– Norbert
Oct 10 '12 at 21:42




8




8




Your polynomial is increasing, and its range is all reals, so there is an inverse. Finding a pleasant expression for the inverse is another matter. But one can find information about the derivative of the inverse without knowing a formula.
– André Nicolas
Oct 10 '12 at 22:05




Your polynomial is increasing, and its range is all reals, so there is an inverse. Finding a pleasant expression for the inverse is another matter. But one can find information about the derivative of the inverse without knowing a formula.
– André Nicolas
Oct 10 '12 at 22:05












I think, it's very hard. Is it homework? Or where is this problem from?
– Berci
Oct 10 '12 at 22:21




I think, it's very hard. Is it homework? Or where is this problem from?
– Berci
Oct 10 '12 at 22:21












This question has been asked before, albeit in greater detail. Most likely we're having trouble answering it because we're missing this information: math.stackexchange.com/questions/85226/…
– Gyu Eun Lee
Dec 15 '12 at 3:42




This question has been asked before, albeit in greater detail. Most likely we're having trouble answering it because we're missing this information: math.stackexchange.com/questions/85226/…
– Gyu Eun Lee
Dec 15 '12 at 3:42










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
6
down vote













This is an experimental way of working out the inverse.



We can treat the polynomial like an expansion
begin{equation}
f(x) = -1 + x + 0x^2 + 2x^3 + 0x^4 + x^5 + 0x^6 + 0x^7 + cdots
end{equation}
then we can perform a Series Reversion on this to give the inverse series (as an infinite expansion) begin{equation}
f^{-1}(x) = (1+x) -2(1+x)^3 +11(1+x)^5-80(1+x)^7+665(1+x)^9-cdots
end{equation}
at a glance this doesn't seem to helpful, but if we search the coefficients in the OEIS we seem to get a hit! It would appear (conjecture) that the general coefficient is then begin{equation}
a(n) = binom{5n+1}{n}frac{(-1)^n}{2n+1}
end{equation}
and we could write that begin{equation}
f^{-1}(x) = sum_{n=0}^infty binom{5n+1}{n}frac{(-1)^n}{2n+1}(x+1)^{2n+1}
end{equation}
if we evaluate that in Mathematica, it gives begin{equation}
f^{-1}(x)=(1+x);_4F_3left(frac{2}{5},frac{3}{5},frac{4}{5},frac{6}{5}bigg|frac{3}{4},frac{5}{4},frac{6}{4}bigg|-frac{5^5}{4^4}(1+x)^2 right)
end{equation}
a generalised hypergeometric function. If we plot the composition of these two i.e $f(f^{-1}(x))$ or $f^{-1}(f(x))$ the plot seems to indicate begin{equation}
f(f^{-1}(x))=f^{-1}(f(x))=x
end{equation}
of course this is not a proof, and evaluating the inverse function may become numerically unstable if $x$ becomes too large.






share|cite|improve this answer






























    up vote
    6
    down vote













    Generally, you say $y=$ your polynomial and solve for $x$. Fifth degree polynomials are generally not solvable. The general approach for a quadratic would be essentially the quadratic formula. Given $y=ax^2+bx+c$, you find $x=frac {-b pm sqrt{b^2-4a(c-y)}}{2a}$. You need to pick one sign to get a function.






    share|cite|improve this answer























    • Thank you! I will try it again.
      – Jaden M.
      Oct 10 '12 at 23:47










    • The solution that is expected to be x = f(y) does not contain y. Substitute c by c-y ?
      – h22
      Nov 23 at 8:02










    • @h22: yes, that is correct. Thanks
      – Ross Millikan
      Nov 23 at 15:07


















    up vote
    1
    down vote













    As others indicated, there is no algebraic formula for the inverse function $f^{-1}$. The inverse functions exists (since $f$ is increasing), but there are serious algebraic obstructions to solving $y=x^5 + 2x^3 + x - 1$ for $x$.



    But we can find particular values of $f^{-1}$ and of its derivative. For example, to find $f^{-1}(3)$ we would just have to note that $f(1)=3$. Therefore, $f^{-1}(3)=1$. (The number $3$ is lucky here; if asked about $f^{-1}(4)$, one would need a numerical method, e.g., a calculator.)



    Also, the inverse function theorem can be used to find the derivative of $f^{-1}$ at $3$:
    $$
    (f^{-1})'(3) = frac{1}{f'(1)} = frac{1}{5+6+1} = frac{1}{12}
    $$





    Related question.






    share|cite|improve this answer























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      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes








      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes








      up vote
      6
      down vote













      This is an experimental way of working out the inverse.



      We can treat the polynomial like an expansion
      begin{equation}
      f(x) = -1 + x + 0x^2 + 2x^3 + 0x^4 + x^5 + 0x^6 + 0x^7 + cdots
      end{equation}
      then we can perform a Series Reversion on this to give the inverse series (as an infinite expansion) begin{equation}
      f^{-1}(x) = (1+x) -2(1+x)^3 +11(1+x)^5-80(1+x)^7+665(1+x)^9-cdots
      end{equation}
      at a glance this doesn't seem to helpful, but if we search the coefficients in the OEIS we seem to get a hit! It would appear (conjecture) that the general coefficient is then begin{equation}
      a(n) = binom{5n+1}{n}frac{(-1)^n}{2n+1}
      end{equation}
      and we could write that begin{equation}
      f^{-1}(x) = sum_{n=0}^infty binom{5n+1}{n}frac{(-1)^n}{2n+1}(x+1)^{2n+1}
      end{equation}
      if we evaluate that in Mathematica, it gives begin{equation}
      f^{-1}(x)=(1+x);_4F_3left(frac{2}{5},frac{3}{5},frac{4}{5},frac{6}{5}bigg|frac{3}{4},frac{5}{4},frac{6}{4}bigg|-frac{5^5}{4^4}(1+x)^2 right)
      end{equation}
      a generalised hypergeometric function. If we plot the composition of these two i.e $f(f^{-1}(x))$ or $f^{-1}(f(x))$ the plot seems to indicate begin{equation}
      f(f^{-1}(x))=f^{-1}(f(x))=x
      end{equation}
      of course this is not a proof, and evaluating the inverse function may become numerically unstable if $x$ becomes too large.






      share|cite|improve this answer



























        up vote
        6
        down vote













        This is an experimental way of working out the inverse.



        We can treat the polynomial like an expansion
        begin{equation}
        f(x) = -1 + x + 0x^2 + 2x^3 + 0x^4 + x^5 + 0x^6 + 0x^7 + cdots
        end{equation}
        then we can perform a Series Reversion on this to give the inverse series (as an infinite expansion) begin{equation}
        f^{-1}(x) = (1+x) -2(1+x)^3 +11(1+x)^5-80(1+x)^7+665(1+x)^9-cdots
        end{equation}
        at a glance this doesn't seem to helpful, but if we search the coefficients in the OEIS we seem to get a hit! It would appear (conjecture) that the general coefficient is then begin{equation}
        a(n) = binom{5n+1}{n}frac{(-1)^n}{2n+1}
        end{equation}
        and we could write that begin{equation}
        f^{-1}(x) = sum_{n=0}^infty binom{5n+1}{n}frac{(-1)^n}{2n+1}(x+1)^{2n+1}
        end{equation}
        if we evaluate that in Mathematica, it gives begin{equation}
        f^{-1}(x)=(1+x);_4F_3left(frac{2}{5},frac{3}{5},frac{4}{5},frac{6}{5}bigg|frac{3}{4},frac{5}{4},frac{6}{4}bigg|-frac{5^5}{4^4}(1+x)^2 right)
        end{equation}
        a generalised hypergeometric function. If we plot the composition of these two i.e $f(f^{-1}(x))$ or $f^{-1}(f(x))$ the plot seems to indicate begin{equation}
        f(f^{-1}(x))=f^{-1}(f(x))=x
        end{equation}
        of course this is not a proof, and evaluating the inverse function may become numerically unstable if $x$ becomes too large.






        share|cite|improve this answer

























          up vote
          6
          down vote










          up vote
          6
          down vote









          This is an experimental way of working out the inverse.



          We can treat the polynomial like an expansion
          begin{equation}
          f(x) = -1 + x + 0x^2 + 2x^3 + 0x^4 + x^5 + 0x^6 + 0x^7 + cdots
          end{equation}
          then we can perform a Series Reversion on this to give the inverse series (as an infinite expansion) begin{equation}
          f^{-1}(x) = (1+x) -2(1+x)^3 +11(1+x)^5-80(1+x)^7+665(1+x)^9-cdots
          end{equation}
          at a glance this doesn't seem to helpful, but if we search the coefficients in the OEIS we seem to get a hit! It would appear (conjecture) that the general coefficient is then begin{equation}
          a(n) = binom{5n+1}{n}frac{(-1)^n}{2n+1}
          end{equation}
          and we could write that begin{equation}
          f^{-1}(x) = sum_{n=0}^infty binom{5n+1}{n}frac{(-1)^n}{2n+1}(x+1)^{2n+1}
          end{equation}
          if we evaluate that in Mathematica, it gives begin{equation}
          f^{-1}(x)=(1+x);_4F_3left(frac{2}{5},frac{3}{5},frac{4}{5},frac{6}{5}bigg|frac{3}{4},frac{5}{4},frac{6}{4}bigg|-frac{5^5}{4^4}(1+x)^2 right)
          end{equation}
          a generalised hypergeometric function. If we plot the composition of these two i.e $f(f^{-1}(x))$ or $f^{-1}(f(x))$ the plot seems to indicate begin{equation}
          f(f^{-1}(x))=f^{-1}(f(x))=x
          end{equation}
          of course this is not a proof, and evaluating the inverse function may become numerically unstable if $x$ becomes too large.






          share|cite|improve this answer














          This is an experimental way of working out the inverse.



          We can treat the polynomial like an expansion
          begin{equation}
          f(x) = -1 + x + 0x^2 + 2x^3 + 0x^4 + x^5 + 0x^6 + 0x^7 + cdots
          end{equation}
          then we can perform a Series Reversion on this to give the inverse series (as an infinite expansion) begin{equation}
          f^{-1}(x) = (1+x) -2(1+x)^3 +11(1+x)^5-80(1+x)^7+665(1+x)^9-cdots
          end{equation}
          at a glance this doesn't seem to helpful, but if we search the coefficients in the OEIS we seem to get a hit! It would appear (conjecture) that the general coefficient is then begin{equation}
          a(n) = binom{5n+1}{n}frac{(-1)^n}{2n+1}
          end{equation}
          and we could write that begin{equation}
          f^{-1}(x) = sum_{n=0}^infty binom{5n+1}{n}frac{(-1)^n}{2n+1}(x+1)^{2n+1}
          end{equation}
          if we evaluate that in Mathematica, it gives begin{equation}
          f^{-1}(x)=(1+x);_4F_3left(frac{2}{5},frac{3}{5},frac{4}{5},frac{6}{5}bigg|frac{3}{4},frac{5}{4},frac{6}{4}bigg|-frac{5^5}{4^4}(1+x)^2 right)
          end{equation}
          a generalised hypergeometric function. If we plot the composition of these two i.e $f(f^{-1}(x))$ or $f^{-1}(f(x))$ the plot seems to indicate begin{equation}
          f(f^{-1}(x))=f^{-1}(f(x))=x
          end{equation}
          of course this is not a proof, and evaluating the inverse function may become numerically unstable if $x$ becomes too large.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Jan 3 '17 at 17:55

























          answered Jan 3 '17 at 17:44









          Benedict W. J. Irwin

          1,463529




          1,463529






















              up vote
              6
              down vote













              Generally, you say $y=$ your polynomial and solve for $x$. Fifth degree polynomials are generally not solvable. The general approach for a quadratic would be essentially the quadratic formula. Given $y=ax^2+bx+c$, you find $x=frac {-b pm sqrt{b^2-4a(c-y)}}{2a}$. You need to pick one sign to get a function.






              share|cite|improve this answer























              • Thank you! I will try it again.
                – Jaden M.
                Oct 10 '12 at 23:47










              • The solution that is expected to be x = f(y) does not contain y. Substitute c by c-y ?
                – h22
                Nov 23 at 8:02










              • @h22: yes, that is correct. Thanks
                – Ross Millikan
                Nov 23 at 15:07















              up vote
              6
              down vote













              Generally, you say $y=$ your polynomial and solve for $x$. Fifth degree polynomials are generally not solvable. The general approach for a quadratic would be essentially the quadratic formula. Given $y=ax^2+bx+c$, you find $x=frac {-b pm sqrt{b^2-4a(c-y)}}{2a}$. You need to pick one sign to get a function.






              share|cite|improve this answer























              • Thank you! I will try it again.
                – Jaden M.
                Oct 10 '12 at 23:47










              • The solution that is expected to be x = f(y) does not contain y. Substitute c by c-y ?
                – h22
                Nov 23 at 8:02










              • @h22: yes, that is correct. Thanks
                – Ross Millikan
                Nov 23 at 15:07













              up vote
              6
              down vote










              up vote
              6
              down vote









              Generally, you say $y=$ your polynomial and solve for $x$. Fifth degree polynomials are generally not solvable. The general approach for a quadratic would be essentially the quadratic formula. Given $y=ax^2+bx+c$, you find $x=frac {-b pm sqrt{b^2-4a(c-y)}}{2a}$. You need to pick one sign to get a function.






              share|cite|improve this answer














              Generally, you say $y=$ your polynomial and solve for $x$. Fifth degree polynomials are generally not solvable. The general approach for a quadratic would be essentially the quadratic formula. Given $y=ax^2+bx+c$, you find $x=frac {-b pm sqrt{b^2-4a(c-y)}}{2a}$. You need to pick one sign to get a function.







              share|cite|improve this answer














              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer








              edited Nov 23 at 15:07

























              answered Oct 10 '12 at 21:47









              Ross Millikan

              288k23195365




              288k23195365












              • Thank you! I will try it again.
                – Jaden M.
                Oct 10 '12 at 23:47










              • The solution that is expected to be x = f(y) does not contain y. Substitute c by c-y ?
                – h22
                Nov 23 at 8:02










              • @h22: yes, that is correct. Thanks
                – Ross Millikan
                Nov 23 at 15:07


















              • Thank you! I will try it again.
                – Jaden M.
                Oct 10 '12 at 23:47










              • The solution that is expected to be x = f(y) does not contain y. Substitute c by c-y ?
                – h22
                Nov 23 at 8:02










              • @h22: yes, that is correct. Thanks
                – Ross Millikan
                Nov 23 at 15:07
















              Thank you! I will try it again.
              – Jaden M.
              Oct 10 '12 at 23:47




              Thank you! I will try it again.
              – Jaden M.
              Oct 10 '12 at 23:47












              The solution that is expected to be x = f(y) does not contain y. Substitute c by c-y ?
              – h22
              Nov 23 at 8:02




              The solution that is expected to be x = f(y) does not contain y. Substitute c by c-y ?
              – h22
              Nov 23 at 8:02












              @h22: yes, that is correct. Thanks
              – Ross Millikan
              Nov 23 at 15:07




              @h22: yes, that is correct. Thanks
              – Ross Millikan
              Nov 23 at 15:07










              up vote
              1
              down vote













              As others indicated, there is no algebraic formula for the inverse function $f^{-1}$. The inverse functions exists (since $f$ is increasing), but there are serious algebraic obstructions to solving $y=x^5 + 2x^3 + x - 1$ for $x$.



              But we can find particular values of $f^{-1}$ and of its derivative. For example, to find $f^{-1}(3)$ we would just have to note that $f(1)=3$. Therefore, $f^{-1}(3)=1$. (The number $3$ is lucky here; if asked about $f^{-1}(4)$, one would need a numerical method, e.g., a calculator.)



              Also, the inverse function theorem can be used to find the derivative of $f^{-1}$ at $3$:
              $$
              (f^{-1})'(3) = frac{1}{f'(1)} = frac{1}{5+6+1} = frac{1}{12}
              $$





              Related question.






              share|cite|improve this answer



























                up vote
                1
                down vote













                As others indicated, there is no algebraic formula for the inverse function $f^{-1}$. The inverse functions exists (since $f$ is increasing), but there are serious algebraic obstructions to solving $y=x^5 + 2x^3 + x - 1$ for $x$.



                But we can find particular values of $f^{-1}$ and of its derivative. For example, to find $f^{-1}(3)$ we would just have to note that $f(1)=3$. Therefore, $f^{-1}(3)=1$. (The number $3$ is lucky here; if asked about $f^{-1}(4)$, one would need a numerical method, e.g., a calculator.)



                Also, the inverse function theorem can be used to find the derivative of $f^{-1}$ at $3$:
                $$
                (f^{-1})'(3) = frac{1}{f'(1)} = frac{1}{5+6+1} = frac{1}{12}
                $$





                Related question.






                share|cite|improve this answer

























                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote









                  As others indicated, there is no algebraic formula for the inverse function $f^{-1}$. The inverse functions exists (since $f$ is increasing), but there are serious algebraic obstructions to solving $y=x^5 + 2x^3 + x - 1$ for $x$.



                  But we can find particular values of $f^{-1}$ and of its derivative. For example, to find $f^{-1}(3)$ we would just have to note that $f(1)=3$. Therefore, $f^{-1}(3)=1$. (The number $3$ is lucky here; if asked about $f^{-1}(4)$, one would need a numerical method, e.g., a calculator.)



                  Also, the inverse function theorem can be used to find the derivative of $f^{-1}$ at $3$:
                  $$
                  (f^{-1})'(3) = frac{1}{f'(1)} = frac{1}{5+6+1} = frac{1}{12}
                  $$





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                  As others indicated, there is no algebraic formula for the inverse function $f^{-1}$. The inverse functions exists (since $f$ is increasing), but there are serious algebraic obstructions to solving $y=x^5 + 2x^3 + x - 1$ for $x$.



                  But we can find particular values of $f^{-1}$ and of its derivative. For example, to find $f^{-1}(3)$ we would just have to note that $f(1)=3$. Therefore, $f^{-1}(3)=1$. (The number $3$ is lucky here; if asked about $f^{-1}(4)$, one would need a numerical method, e.g., a calculator.)



                  Also, the inverse function theorem can be used to find the derivative of $f^{-1}$ at $3$:
                  $$
                  (f^{-1})'(3) = frac{1}{f'(1)} = frac{1}{5+6+1} = frac{1}{12}
                  $$





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                  edited Apr 13 '17 at 12:19


























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