Transformation integral











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I am studying a proof and have some difficulty understanding the following step:



$intlimits_0^infty y dF(t+y) = intlimits_0^infty (1-F(t+y))dy$.



Here, F(x) is probability distribution function.
Could somebody explain this equality?
Thank you very much in advance!










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    up vote
    0
    down vote

    favorite












    I am studying a proof and have some difficulty understanding the following step:



    $intlimits_0^infty y dF(t+y) = intlimits_0^infty (1-F(t+y))dy$.



    Here, F(x) is probability distribution function.
    Could somebody explain this equality?
    Thank you very much in advance!










    share|cite|improve this question
























      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite











      I am studying a proof and have some difficulty understanding the following step:



      $intlimits_0^infty y dF(t+y) = intlimits_0^infty (1-F(t+y))dy$.



      Here, F(x) is probability distribution function.
      Could somebody explain this equality?
      Thank you very much in advance!










      share|cite|improve this question













      I am studying a proof and have some difficulty understanding the following step:



      $intlimits_0^infty y dF(t+y) = intlimits_0^infty (1-F(t+y))dy$.



      Here, F(x) is probability distribution function.
      Could somebody explain this equality?
      Thank you very much in advance!







      probability integration






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      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Nov 23 at 15:44









      Luna

      84




      84






















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          Hint: Put $g(y)=1-F(t+y)$, and $h(y)=y$ in
          $$int_{a}^{b} g(y) h'(y) dy = g(y)h(y)|_a^{b} -int_{a}^{b} h(y) g'(y) dy.$$






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Thanks for your response!
            – Luna
            Nov 23 at 16:10










          • But how should I compute $(1-F(t+y)y mid^infty_0$ ?
            – Luna
            Nov 23 at 16:10












          • Some CDFs have the property that $lim_{ytoinfty}y(1-F(t+y))=0$.
            – Math Lover
            Nov 23 at 16:44











          Your Answer





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          1 Answer
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          active

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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

          votes








          up vote
          0
          down vote













          Hint: Put $g(y)=1-F(t+y)$, and $h(y)=y$ in
          $$int_{a}^{b} g(y) h'(y) dy = g(y)h(y)|_a^{b} -int_{a}^{b} h(y) g'(y) dy.$$






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Thanks for your response!
            – Luna
            Nov 23 at 16:10










          • But how should I compute $(1-F(t+y)y mid^infty_0$ ?
            – Luna
            Nov 23 at 16:10












          • Some CDFs have the property that $lim_{ytoinfty}y(1-F(t+y))=0$.
            – Math Lover
            Nov 23 at 16:44















          up vote
          0
          down vote













          Hint: Put $g(y)=1-F(t+y)$, and $h(y)=y$ in
          $$int_{a}^{b} g(y) h'(y) dy = g(y)h(y)|_a^{b} -int_{a}^{b} h(y) g'(y) dy.$$






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Thanks for your response!
            – Luna
            Nov 23 at 16:10










          • But how should I compute $(1-F(t+y)y mid^infty_0$ ?
            – Luna
            Nov 23 at 16:10












          • Some CDFs have the property that $lim_{ytoinfty}y(1-F(t+y))=0$.
            – Math Lover
            Nov 23 at 16:44













          up vote
          0
          down vote










          up vote
          0
          down vote









          Hint: Put $g(y)=1-F(t+y)$, and $h(y)=y$ in
          $$int_{a}^{b} g(y) h'(y) dy = g(y)h(y)|_a^{b} -int_{a}^{b} h(y) g'(y) dy.$$






          share|cite|improve this answer












          Hint: Put $g(y)=1-F(t+y)$, and $h(y)=y$ in
          $$int_{a}^{b} g(y) h'(y) dy = g(y)h(y)|_a^{b} -int_{a}^{b} h(y) g'(y) dy.$$







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Nov 23 at 15:50









          Math Lover

          13.6k31435




          13.6k31435












          • Thanks for your response!
            – Luna
            Nov 23 at 16:10










          • But how should I compute $(1-F(t+y)y mid^infty_0$ ?
            – Luna
            Nov 23 at 16:10












          • Some CDFs have the property that $lim_{ytoinfty}y(1-F(t+y))=0$.
            – Math Lover
            Nov 23 at 16:44


















          • Thanks for your response!
            – Luna
            Nov 23 at 16:10










          • But how should I compute $(1-F(t+y)y mid^infty_0$ ?
            – Luna
            Nov 23 at 16:10












          • Some CDFs have the property that $lim_{ytoinfty}y(1-F(t+y))=0$.
            – Math Lover
            Nov 23 at 16:44
















          Thanks for your response!
          – Luna
          Nov 23 at 16:10




          Thanks for your response!
          – Luna
          Nov 23 at 16:10












          But how should I compute $(1-F(t+y)y mid^infty_0$ ?
          – Luna
          Nov 23 at 16:10






          But how should I compute $(1-F(t+y)y mid^infty_0$ ?
          – Luna
          Nov 23 at 16:10














          Some CDFs have the property that $lim_{ytoinfty}y(1-F(t+y))=0$.
          – Math Lover
          Nov 23 at 16:44




          Some CDFs have the property that $lim_{ytoinfty}y(1-F(t+y))=0$.
          – Math Lover
          Nov 23 at 16:44


















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