$lim_{(x,y)to(0,0)}frac{x^2y^2}{sin(x)cos(y)}$ is this done correctly?











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$lim_{(x,y)to(0,0)}frac{x^2y^2}{sin(x)cos(y)}$ is it allowed to split a multi-variable limit into its component variables as in the next step?



$= (lim_{xto0}frac{x^2}{sin(x)})(lim_{xto0}frac{y^2}{sin(y)})$ this is an indeterminate form and now I use L'Hopital



$=(lim_{xto0}frac{2x}{cos(x)})(lim_{xto0}frac{2y}{cos(y)})$



$=(frac{0}{1})(frac{0}{1})=0$










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    up vote
    0
    down vote

    favorite












    $lim_{(x,y)to(0,0)}frac{x^2y^2}{sin(x)cos(y)}$ is it allowed to split a multi-variable limit into its component variables as in the next step?



    $= (lim_{xto0}frac{x^2}{sin(x)})(lim_{xto0}frac{y^2}{sin(y)})$ this is an indeterminate form and now I use L'Hopital



    $=(lim_{xto0}frac{2x}{cos(x)})(lim_{xto0}frac{2y}{cos(y)})$



    $=(frac{0}{1})(frac{0}{1})=0$










    share|cite|improve this question


























      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite











      $lim_{(x,y)to(0,0)}frac{x^2y^2}{sin(x)cos(y)}$ is it allowed to split a multi-variable limit into its component variables as in the next step?



      $= (lim_{xto0}frac{x^2}{sin(x)})(lim_{xto0}frac{y^2}{sin(y)})$ this is an indeterminate form and now I use L'Hopital



      $=(lim_{xto0}frac{2x}{cos(x)})(lim_{xto0}frac{2y}{cos(y)})$



      $=(frac{0}{1})(frac{0}{1})=0$










      share|cite|improve this question















      $lim_{(x,y)to(0,0)}frac{x^2y^2}{sin(x)cos(y)}$ is it allowed to split a multi-variable limit into its component variables as in the next step?



      $= (lim_{xto0}frac{x^2}{sin(x)})(lim_{xto0}frac{y^2}{sin(y)})$ this is an indeterminate form and now I use L'Hopital



      $=(lim_{xto0}frac{2x}{cos(x)})(lim_{xto0}frac{2y}{cos(y)})$



      $=(frac{0}{1})(frac{0}{1})=0$







      calculus limits multivariable-calculus






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      edited Nov 23 at 15:27









      Martin Sleziak

      44.4k7115268




      44.4k7115268










      asked Feb 7 '16 at 8:52









      Gobabis

      622517




      622517






















          3 Answers
          3






          active

          oldest

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          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          Even switching the order of taking a limit can lead to problems.



          As an example: $ limlimits_{m to infty} limlimits_{n to infty} {frac{1}{n}} ^{frac{1}{m}} = limlimits_{m to infty} 0 ^{frac{1}{m}} = 0 neq 1 = limlimits_{n to infty} 1 = limlimits_{n to infty} limlimits_{m to infty} frac{1}{n} ^frac{1}{m} $



          While: $ limlimits_{(m,n) to (infty, infty)} {frac{1}{n}} ^{frac{1}{m}}$ does not exist.



          At this point I would like to refer to this post well written post and hope this answers some further questions of yours: https://math.stackexchange.com/q/15257






          share|cite|improve this answer






























            up vote
            3
            down vote













            No, it is generally not allowed as it may be false. But you can do as follows:



            $$lim_{(x,y)to(0,0)};xcdotfrac x{sin x}cdotfrac{y^2}{cos y}=0cdot1cdotfrac01=0$$






            share|cite|improve this answer




























              up vote
              0
              down vote













              It is actually easier:
              $$
              left|frac{x^2 y^2}{sin x cos y}right| leq 2left|frac{x}{sin x} right| left| y^2 right| left| x right| leq
              |xy^2| =o(1)
              $$
              as $(x,y) to (0,0)$.






              share|cite|improve this answer





















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                3 Answers
                3






                active

                oldest

                votes








                3 Answers
                3






                active

                oldest

                votes









                active

                oldest

                votes






                active

                oldest

                votes








                up vote
                2
                down vote



                accepted










                Even switching the order of taking a limit can lead to problems.



                As an example: $ limlimits_{m to infty} limlimits_{n to infty} {frac{1}{n}} ^{frac{1}{m}} = limlimits_{m to infty} 0 ^{frac{1}{m}} = 0 neq 1 = limlimits_{n to infty} 1 = limlimits_{n to infty} limlimits_{m to infty} frac{1}{n} ^frac{1}{m} $



                While: $ limlimits_{(m,n) to (infty, infty)} {frac{1}{n}} ^{frac{1}{m}}$ does not exist.



                At this point I would like to refer to this post well written post and hope this answers some further questions of yours: https://math.stackexchange.com/q/15257






                share|cite|improve this answer



























                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote



                  accepted










                  Even switching the order of taking a limit can lead to problems.



                  As an example: $ limlimits_{m to infty} limlimits_{n to infty} {frac{1}{n}} ^{frac{1}{m}} = limlimits_{m to infty} 0 ^{frac{1}{m}} = 0 neq 1 = limlimits_{n to infty} 1 = limlimits_{n to infty} limlimits_{m to infty} frac{1}{n} ^frac{1}{m} $



                  While: $ limlimits_{(m,n) to (infty, infty)} {frac{1}{n}} ^{frac{1}{m}}$ does not exist.



                  At this point I would like to refer to this post well written post and hope this answers some further questions of yours: https://math.stackexchange.com/q/15257






                  share|cite|improve this answer

























                    up vote
                    2
                    down vote



                    accepted







                    up vote
                    2
                    down vote



                    accepted






                    Even switching the order of taking a limit can lead to problems.



                    As an example: $ limlimits_{m to infty} limlimits_{n to infty} {frac{1}{n}} ^{frac{1}{m}} = limlimits_{m to infty} 0 ^{frac{1}{m}} = 0 neq 1 = limlimits_{n to infty} 1 = limlimits_{n to infty} limlimits_{m to infty} frac{1}{n} ^frac{1}{m} $



                    While: $ limlimits_{(m,n) to (infty, infty)} {frac{1}{n}} ^{frac{1}{m}}$ does not exist.



                    At this point I would like to refer to this post well written post and hope this answers some further questions of yours: https://math.stackexchange.com/q/15257






                    share|cite|improve this answer














                    Even switching the order of taking a limit can lead to problems.



                    As an example: $ limlimits_{m to infty} limlimits_{n to infty} {frac{1}{n}} ^{frac{1}{m}} = limlimits_{m to infty} 0 ^{frac{1}{m}} = 0 neq 1 = limlimits_{n to infty} 1 = limlimits_{n to infty} limlimits_{m to infty} frac{1}{n} ^frac{1}{m} $



                    While: $ limlimits_{(m,n) to (infty, infty)} {frac{1}{n}} ^{frac{1}{m}}$ does not exist.



                    At this point I would like to refer to this post well written post and hope this answers some further questions of yours: https://math.stackexchange.com/q/15257







                    share|cite|improve this answer














                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer








                    edited Apr 13 '17 at 12:21









                    Community

                    1




                    1










                    answered Feb 7 '16 at 9:34









                    Imago

                    1,25411019




                    1,25411019






















                        up vote
                        3
                        down vote













                        No, it is generally not allowed as it may be false. But you can do as follows:



                        $$lim_{(x,y)to(0,0)};xcdotfrac x{sin x}cdotfrac{y^2}{cos y}=0cdot1cdotfrac01=0$$






                        share|cite|improve this answer

























                          up vote
                          3
                          down vote













                          No, it is generally not allowed as it may be false. But you can do as follows:



                          $$lim_{(x,y)to(0,0)};xcdotfrac x{sin x}cdotfrac{y^2}{cos y}=0cdot1cdotfrac01=0$$






                          share|cite|improve this answer























                            up vote
                            3
                            down vote










                            up vote
                            3
                            down vote









                            No, it is generally not allowed as it may be false. But you can do as follows:



                            $$lim_{(x,y)to(0,0)};xcdotfrac x{sin x}cdotfrac{y^2}{cos y}=0cdot1cdotfrac01=0$$






                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            No, it is generally not allowed as it may be false. But you can do as follows:



                            $$lim_{(x,y)to(0,0)};xcdotfrac x{sin x}cdotfrac{y^2}{cos y}=0cdot1cdotfrac01=0$$







                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer










                            answered Feb 7 '16 at 9:01









                            DonAntonio

                            176k1491224




                            176k1491224






















                                up vote
                                0
                                down vote













                                It is actually easier:
                                $$
                                left|frac{x^2 y^2}{sin x cos y}right| leq 2left|frac{x}{sin x} right| left| y^2 right| left| x right| leq
                                |xy^2| =o(1)
                                $$
                                as $(x,y) to (0,0)$.






                                share|cite|improve this answer

























                                  up vote
                                  0
                                  down vote













                                  It is actually easier:
                                  $$
                                  left|frac{x^2 y^2}{sin x cos y}right| leq 2left|frac{x}{sin x} right| left| y^2 right| left| x right| leq
                                  |xy^2| =o(1)
                                  $$
                                  as $(x,y) to (0,0)$.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer























                                    up vote
                                    0
                                    down vote










                                    up vote
                                    0
                                    down vote









                                    It is actually easier:
                                    $$
                                    left|frac{x^2 y^2}{sin x cos y}right| leq 2left|frac{x}{sin x} right| left| y^2 right| left| x right| leq
                                    |xy^2| =o(1)
                                    $$
                                    as $(x,y) to (0,0)$.






                                    share|cite|improve this answer












                                    It is actually easier:
                                    $$
                                    left|frac{x^2 y^2}{sin x cos y}right| leq 2left|frac{x}{sin x} right| left| y^2 right| left| x right| leq
                                    |xy^2| =o(1)
                                    $$
                                    as $(x,y) to (0,0)$.







                                    share|cite|improve this answer












                                    share|cite|improve this answer



                                    share|cite|improve this answer










                                    answered Feb 7 '16 at 9:02









                                    Siminore

                                    30.2k23368




                                    30.2k23368






























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