Prop. A.17 in Hatcher











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Here is the statement and proof in question.



enter image description here



I don't understand how they can say that $W$ has a quotient topolgy from $Xtimes Z$ and that there is a quotient map $g$. It seems like this what we are trying to prove. To me, a quotient map is a certain kind of surjective, continuous map. I also don't understand why we want to show that $h$ is continuous.



Also if someone could tell me what the subsript $c$ means here that would be greatly appreciated:



enter image description here










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  • I guess $g$ is $f times mathbf{1}$ considered as a set map and then we use this map to define a quotient topology on $Y times Z$?
    – SihOASHoihd
    Nov 23 at 15:50












  • I think I get it. $W$ is $Y times Z$ with the quotient topology induced by the surjective map $f times mathbf{1}$ and $Ytimes Z$ has the product topology. I guess I have to used to Hatcher's wording. I am still interested in the subscript c though.
    – SihOASHoihd
    Nov 23 at 16:09










  • Yes, $W$ is the set $Y times Z$ but with the final topology induced by the map $f times 1$! This is not necessarily $Y times Z$ which is the space given by the product topology. The point of the proof is to show that they coincide as spaces, that is the two topologies coincide. As sets they are equal.
    – N.B.
    Nov 23 at 16:17















up vote
1
down vote

favorite












Here is the statement and proof in question.



enter image description here



I don't understand how they can say that $W$ has a quotient topolgy from $Xtimes Z$ and that there is a quotient map $g$. It seems like this what we are trying to prove. To me, a quotient map is a certain kind of surjective, continuous map. I also don't understand why we want to show that $h$ is continuous.



Also if someone could tell me what the subsript $c$ means here that would be greatly appreciated:



enter image description here










share|cite|improve this question






















  • I guess $g$ is $f times mathbf{1}$ considered as a set map and then we use this map to define a quotient topology on $Y times Z$?
    – SihOASHoihd
    Nov 23 at 15:50












  • I think I get it. $W$ is $Y times Z$ with the quotient topology induced by the surjective map $f times mathbf{1}$ and $Ytimes Z$ has the product topology. I guess I have to used to Hatcher's wording. I am still interested in the subscript c though.
    – SihOASHoihd
    Nov 23 at 16:09










  • Yes, $W$ is the set $Y times Z$ but with the final topology induced by the map $f times 1$! This is not necessarily $Y times Z$ which is the space given by the product topology. The point of the proof is to show that they coincide as spaces, that is the two topologies coincide. As sets they are equal.
    – N.B.
    Nov 23 at 16:17













up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











Here is the statement and proof in question.



enter image description here



I don't understand how they can say that $W$ has a quotient topolgy from $Xtimes Z$ and that there is a quotient map $g$. It seems like this what we are trying to prove. To me, a quotient map is a certain kind of surjective, continuous map. I also don't understand why we want to show that $h$ is continuous.



Also if someone could tell me what the subsript $c$ means here that would be greatly appreciated:



enter image description here










share|cite|improve this question













Here is the statement and proof in question.



enter image description here



I don't understand how they can say that $W$ has a quotient topolgy from $Xtimes Z$ and that there is a quotient map $g$. It seems like this what we are trying to prove. To me, a quotient map is a certain kind of surjective, continuous map. I also don't understand why we want to show that $h$ is continuous.



Also if someone could tell me what the subsript $c$ means here that would be greatly appreciated:



enter image description here







general-topology






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share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




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asked Nov 23 at 15:44









SihOASHoihd

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18312












  • I guess $g$ is $f times mathbf{1}$ considered as a set map and then we use this map to define a quotient topology on $Y times Z$?
    – SihOASHoihd
    Nov 23 at 15:50












  • I think I get it. $W$ is $Y times Z$ with the quotient topology induced by the surjective map $f times mathbf{1}$ and $Ytimes Z$ has the product topology. I guess I have to used to Hatcher's wording. I am still interested in the subscript c though.
    – SihOASHoihd
    Nov 23 at 16:09










  • Yes, $W$ is the set $Y times Z$ but with the final topology induced by the map $f times 1$! This is not necessarily $Y times Z$ which is the space given by the product topology. The point of the proof is to show that they coincide as spaces, that is the two topologies coincide. As sets they are equal.
    – N.B.
    Nov 23 at 16:17


















  • I guess $g$ is $f times mathbf{1}$ considered as a set map and then we use this map to define a quotient topology on $Y times Z$?
    – SihOASHoihd
    Nov 23 at 15:50












  • I think I get it. $W$ is $Y times Z$ with the quotient topology induced by the surjective map $f times mathbf{1}$ and $Ytimes Z$ has the product topology. I guess I have to used to Hatcher's wording. I am still interested in the subscript c though.
    – SihOASHoihd
    Nov 23 at 16:09










  • Yes, $W$ is the set $Y times Z$ but with the final topology induced by the map $f times 1$! This is not necessarily $Y times Z$ which is the space given by the product topology. The point of the proof is to show that they coincide as spaces, that is the two topologies coincide. As sets they are equal.
    – N.B.
    Nov 23 at 16:17
















I guess $g$ is $f times mathbf{1}$ considered as a set map and then we use this map to define a quotient topology on $Y times Z$?
– SihOASHoihd
Nov 23 at 15:50






I guess $g$ is $f times mathbf{1}$ considered as a set map and then we use this map to define a quotient topology on $Y times Z$?
– SihOASHoihd
Nov 23 at 15:50














I think I get it. $W$ is $Y times Z$ with the quotient topology induced by the surjective map $f times mathbf{1}$ and $Ytimes Z$ has the product topology. I guess I have to used to Hatcher's wording. I am still interested in the subscript c though.
– SihOASHoihd
Nov 23 at 16:09




I think I get it. $W$ is $Y times Z$ with the quotient topology induced by the surjective map $f times mathbf{1}$ and $Ytimes Z$ has the product topology. I guess I have to used to Hatcher's wording. I am still interested in the subscript c though.
– SihOASHoihd
Nov 23 at 16:09












Yes, $W$ is the set $Y times Z$ but with the final topology induced by the map $f times 1$! This is not necessarily $Y times Z$ which is the space given by the product topology. The point of the proof is to show that they coincide as spaces, that is the two topologies coincide. As sets they are equal.
– N.B.
Nov 23 at 16:17




Yes, $W$ is the set $Y times Z$ but with the final topology induced by the map $f times 1$! This is not necessarily $Y times Z$ which is the space given by the product topology. The point of the proof is to show that they coincide as spaces, that is the two topologies coincide. As sets they are equal.
– N.B.
Nov 23 at 16:17










1 Answer
1






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up vote
1
down vote



accepted










I think Hatcher here means as quotient topology the most rich topology making the map in question continuous. In our situation he defines $W=Y times Z$ as set and since he wants $ftimes 1$ to be a quotient map he finest topology on $W$ making this function continuous, i.e. we declare a subset $A subset W$ to be open iff $(f times 1)^{-1}(A)$ is open in $X times Z$. In other terms we are putting on $W$ the final topology with respect to the map $f times 1$. See the wikipedia article for the definition https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Final_topology
This is exactly the topology you are considering for quotient maps, i.e. maps whose underlying function of set is a function from a set $T$ to its quotient $T/sim$ with respect to $sim$ an equivalence relation.



Now we want to prove that the product topology on $Y times Z$ and this quotient topology coincide, if you spell the condition explicitly you will see that this is equivalent to proving that the identity function $h colon Y times Z rightarrow W$ is continuous.



For your second questions, usually the notation $X_c$ refers to the compactly generated topology associated to the space $X$. A good reference is
https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/compactly+generated+topological+space
basically we want to modify the starting topology on $X$ in such a way that all its closed subsets $C subset X$ will be compactly closed, that is for every continuous function $f colon K rightarrow X$ from $K$ compact space $f^{-1}(U)$ must be closed.



A famous example of class of compactly generated space is the class of CW complexes.



The point to bring this up in the proof I think is the following: in general the product of two compactly generated spaces $X$, $Y$ is not compactly generated, thus you consider $(X times Y)_c$ to have again a compactly generated space.



For example if $X$ and $Y$ are two CW complexes $X times Y$ needs not to be a CW complex, while $(X times Y)_c$ admits the structure of CW complex.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • Yes, the context is compactly generated spaces, so that checks out. But he just starts using the notation without mentioning anything... Thanks.
    – SihOASHoihd
    Nov 23 at 16:17













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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
1
down vote



accepted










I think Hatcher here means as quotient topology the most rich topology making the map in question continuous. In our situation he defines $W=Y times Z$ as set and since he wants $ftimes 1$ to be a quotient map he finest topology on $W$ making this function continuous, i.e. we declare a subset $A subset W$ to be open iff $(f times 1)^{-1}(A)$ is open in $X times Z$. In other terms we are putting on $W$ the final topology with respect to the map $f times 1$. See the wikipedia article for the definition https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Final_topology
This is exactly the topology you are considering for quotient maps, i.e. maps whose underlying function of set is a function from a set $T$ to its quotient $T/sim$ with respect to $sim$ an equivalence relation.



Now we want to prove that the product topology on $Y times Z$ and this quotient topology coincide, if you spell the condition explicitly you will see that this is equivalent to proving that the identity function $h colon Y times Z rightarrow W$ is continuous.



For your second questions, usually the notation $X_c$ refers to the compactly generated topology associated to the space $X$. A good reference is
https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/compactly+generated+topological+space
basically we want to modify the starting topology on $X$ in such a way that all its closed subsets $C subset X$ will be compactly closed, that is for every continuous function $f colon K rightarrow X$ from $K$ compact space $f^{-1}(U)$ must be closed.



A famous example of class of compactly generated space is the class of CW complexes.



The point to bring this up in the proof I think is the following: in general the product of two compactly generated spaces $X$, $Y$ is not compactly generated, thus you consider $(X times Y)_c$ to have again a compactly generated space.



For example if $X$ and $Y$ are two CW complexes $X times Y$ needs not to be a CW complex, while $(X times Y)_c$ admits the structure of CW complex.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • Yes, the context is compactly generated spaces, so that checks out. But he just starts using the notation without mentioning anything... Thanks.
    – SihOASHoihd
    Nov 23 at 16:17

















up vote
1
down vote



accepted










I think Hatcher here means as quotient topology the most rich topology making the map in question continuous. In our situation he defines $W=Y times Z$ as set and since he wants $ftimes 1$ to be a quotient map he finest topology on $W$ making this function continuous, i.e. we declare a subset $A subset W$ to be open iff $(f times 1)^{-1}(A)$ is open in $X times Z$. In other terms we are putting on $W$ the final topology with respect to the map $f times 1$. See the wikipedia article for the definition https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Final_topology
This is exactly the topology you are considering for quotient maps, i.e. maps whose underlying function of set is a function from a set $T$ to its quotient $T/sim$ with respect to $sim$ an equivalence relation.



Now we want to prove that the product topology on $Y times Z$ and this quotient topology coincide, if you spell the condition explicitly you will see that this is equivalent to proving that the identity function $h colon Y times Z rightarrow W$ is continuous.



For your second questions, usually the notation $X_c$ refers to the compactly generated topology associated to the space $X$. A good reference is
https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/compactly+generated+topological+space
basically we want to modify the starting topology on $X$ in such a way that all its closed subsets $C subset X$ will be compactly closed, that is for every continuous function $f colon K rightarrow X$ from $K$ compact space $f^{-1}(U)$ must be closed.



A famous example of class of compactly generated space is the class of CW complexes.



The point to bring this up in the proof I think is the following: in general the product of two compactly generated spaces $X$, $Y$ is not compactly generated, thus you consider $(X times Y)_c$ to have again a compactly generated space.



For example if $X$ and $Y$ are two CW complexes $X times Y$ needs not to be a CW complex, while $(X times Y)_c$ admits the structure of CW complex.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • Yes, the context is compactly generated spaces, so that checks out. But he just starts using the notation without mentioning anything... Thanks.
    – SihOASHoihd
    Nov 23 at 16:17















up vote
1
down vote



accepted







up vote
1
down vote



accepted






I think Hatcher here means as quotient topology the most rich topology making the map in question continuous. In our situation he defines $W=Y times Z$ as set and since he wants $ftimes 1$ to be a quotient map he finest topology on $W$ making this function continuous, i.e. we declare a subset $A subset W$ to be open iff $(f times 1)^{-1}(A)$ is open in $X times Z$. In other terms we are putting on $W$ the final topology with respect to the map $f times 1$. See the wikipedia article for the definition https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Final_topology
This is exactly the topology you are considering for quotient maps, i.e. maps whose underlying function of set is a function from a set $T$ to its quotient $T/sim$ with respect to $sim$ an equivalence relation.



Now we want to prove that the product topology on $Y times Z$ and this quotient topology coincide, if you spell the condition explicitly you will see that this is equivalent to proving that the identity function $h colon Y times Z rightarrow W$ is continuous.



For your second questions, usually the notation $X_c$ refers to the compactly generated topology associated to the space $X$. A good reference is
https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/compactly+generated+topological+space
basically we want to modify the starting topology on $X$ in such a way that all its closed subsets $C subset X$ will be compactly closed, that is for every continuous function $f colon K rightarrow X$ from $K$ compact space $f^{-1}(U)$ must be closed.



A famous example of class of compactly generated space is the class of CW complexes.



The point to bring this up in the proof I think is the following: in general the product of two compactly generated spaces $X$, $Y$ is not compactly generated, thus you consider $(X times Y)_c$ to have again a compactly generated space.



For example if $X$ and $Y$ are two CW complexes $X times Y$ needs not to be a CW complex, while $(X times Y)_c$ admits the structure of CW complex.






share|cite|improve this answer














I think Hatcher here means as quotient topology the most rich topology making the map in question continuous. In our situation he defines $W=Y times Z$ as set and since he wants $ftimes 1$ to be a quotient map he finest topology on $W$ making this function continuous, i.e. we declare a subset $A subset W$ to be open iff $(f times 1)^{-1}(A)$ is open in $X times Z$. In other terms we are putting on $W$ the final topology with respect to the map $f times 1$. See the wikipedia article for the definition https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Final_topology
This is exactly the topology you are considering for quotient maps, i.e. maps whose underlying function of set is a function from a set $T$ to its quotient $T/sim$ with respect to $sim$ an equivalence relation.



Now we want to prove that the product topology on $Y times Z$ and this quotient topology coincide, if you spell the condition explicitly you will see that this is equivalent to proving that the identity function $h colon Y times Z rightarrow W$ is continuous.



For your second questions, usually the notation $X_c$ refers to the compactly generated topology associated to the space $X$. A good reference is
https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/compactly+generated+topological+space
basically we want to modify the starting topology on $X$ in such a way that all its closed subsets $C subset X$ will be compactly closed, that is for every continuous function $f colon K rightarrow X$ from $K$ compact space $f^{-1}(U)$ must be closed.



A famous example of class of compactly generated space is the class of CW complexes.



The point to bring this up in the proof I think is the following: in general the product of two compactly generated spaces $X$, $Y$ is not compactly generated, thus you consider $(X times Y)_c$ to have again a compactly generated space.



For example if $X$ and $Y$ are two CW complexes $X times Y$ needs not to be a CW complex, while $(X times Y)_c$ admits the structure of CW complex.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Nov 23 at 16:18

























answered Nov 23 at 16:14









N.B.

682313




682313












  • Yes, the context is compactly generated spaces, so that checks out. But he just starts using the notation without mentioning anything... Thanks.
    – SihOASHoihd
    Nov 23 at 16:17




















  • Yes, the context is compactly generated spaces, so that checks out. But he just starts using the notation without mentioning anything... Thanks.
    – SihOASHoihd
    Nov 23 at 16:17


















Yes, the context is compactly generated spaces, so that checks out. But he just starts using the notation without mentioning anything... Thanks.
– SihOASHoihd
Nov 23 at 16:17






Yes, the context is compactly generated spaces, so that checks out. But he just starts using the notation without mentioning anything... Thanks.
– SihOASHoihd
Nov 23 at 16:17




















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