Using the Banach fixed point Theorem
In Chapter 7, The Hille-Yosida Theorem,
Functional Analysis,
Sobolev Spaces and Partial
Differential Equations - Brezis, 2011.
Brezis showed the following claim (in Proposition 7.1).
Claim: Suppose that $A$ is a maximal monotone operator, $(I+lambda A): D(A) to R(I+lambda A)$ is a injective operator, and $|(I+lambda A)^{-1}u| leq |u| $ for all $u in R(I+lambda A)$ for all $lambda >0$. Then $R(I+lambda A) = H$.
The proof of Brezis:
We will prove that if $R(I+lambda_{0} A) = H$ for some $lambda_{0}>0$ then
$R(I+lambda A) = H$ for every $lambda > frac{1}{2}lambda_{0}$.
For some $f in H$, we try to solve the equation
$u+lambda Au = f$ with $lambda >0$. (1)
Equation (1) may be written as
$u+ lambda_{0}Au = frac{lambda_{0}}{lambda}f+ big( 1- frac{lambda_{0}}{lambda}u big)$
or alternatively
$u= (I+lambda A)^{-1}big[frac{lambda_{0}}{lambda}f+ big( 1- frac{lambda_{0}}{lambda}u big)big]$ $(2)$
If $|1-frac{lambda_{0}}{lambda}|< 1$, i.e., $lambda > frac{1}{2}lambda_{0}$, we may apply the contraction mapping principle (the Banach Fixed point Theorem) and deduce that (2) has a solution.
My question: how to prove that (2) has a solution using the the Banach Fixed point Theorem?
Thanks
Definitions:
An unbounded linear operator $A: D(A)subseteq H to H$ is said to be monotone if it satisfies
$langle A u, u rangle geq 0$ for all $uin D(A)$.
It is called maximal monotone if, in addition, $R(I+A)=H$.
functional-analysis pde
add a comment |
In Chapter 7, The Hille-Yosida Theorem,
Functional Analysis,
Sobolev Spaces and Partial
Differential Equations - Brezis, 2011.
Brezis showed the following claim (in Proposition 7.1).
Claim: Suppose that $A$ is a maximal monotone operator, $(I+lambda A): D(A) to R(I+lambda A)$ is a injective operator, and $|(I+lambda A)^{-1}u| leq |u| $ for all $u in R(I+lambda A)$ for all $lambda >0$. Then $R(I+lambda A) = H$.
The proof of Brezis:
We will prove that if $R(I+lambda_{0} A) = H$ for some $lambda_{0}>0$ then
$R(I+lambda A) = H$ for every $lambda > frac{1}{2}lambda_{0}$.
For some $f in H$, we try to solve the equation
$u+lambda Au = f$ with $lambda >0$. (1)
Equation (1) may be written as
$u+ lambda_{0}Au = frac{lambda_{0}}{lambda}f+ big( 1- frac{lambda_{0}}{lambda}u big)$
or alternatively
$u= (I+lambda A)^{-1}big[frac{lambda_{0}}{lambda}f+ big( 1- frac{lambda_{0}}{lambda}u big)big]$ $(2)$
If $|1-frac{lambda_{0}}{lambda}|< 1$, i.e., $lambda > frac{1}{2}lambda_{0}$, we may apply the contraction mapping principle (the Banach Fixed point Theorem) and deduce that (2) has a solution.
My question: how to prove that (2) has a solution using the the Banach Fixed point Theorem?
Thanks
Definitions:
An unbounded linear operator $A: D(A)subseteq H to H$ is said to be monotone if it satisfies
$langle A u, u rangle geq 0$ for all $uin D(A)$.
It is called maximal monotone if, in addition, $R(I+A)=H$.
functional-analysis pde
add a comment |
In Chapter 7, The Hille-Yosida Theorem,
Functional Analysis,
Sobolev Spaces and Partial
Differential Equations - Brezis, 2011.
Brezis showed the following claim (in Proposition 7.1).
Claim: Suppose that $A$ is a maximal monotone operator, $(I+lambda A): D(A) to R(I+lambda A)$ is a injective operator, and $|(I+lambda A)^{-1}u| leq |u| $ for all $u in R(I+lambda A)$ for all $lambda >0$. Then $R(I+lambda A) = H$.
The proof of Brezis:
We will prove that if $R(I+lambda_{0} A) = H$ for some $lambda_{0}>0$ then
$R(I+lambda A) = H$ for every $lambda > frac{1}{2}lambda_{0}$.
For some $f in H$, we try to solve the equation
$u+lambda Au = f$ with $lambda >0$. (1)
Equation (1) may be written as
$u+ lambda_{0}Au = frac{lambda_{0}}{lambda}f+ big( 1- frac{lambda_{0}}{lambda}u big)$
or alternatively
$u= (I+lambda A)^{-1}big[frac{lambda_{0}}{lambda}f+ big( 1- frac{lambda_{0}}{lambda}u big)big]$ $(2)$
If $|1-frac{lambda_{0}}{lambda}|< 1$, i.e., $lambda > frac{1}{2}lambda_{0}$, we may apply the contraction mapping principle (the Banach Fixed point Theorem) and deduce that (2) has a solution.
My question: how to prove that (2) has a solution using the the Banach Fixed point Theorem?
Thanks
Definitions:
An unbounded linear operator $A: D(A)subseteq H to H$ is said to be monotone if it satisfies
$langle A u, u rangle geq 0$ for all $uin D(A)$.
It is called maximal monotone if, in addition, $R(I+A)=H$.
functional-analysis pde
In Chapter 7, The Hille-Yosida Theorem,
Functional Analysis,
Sobolev Spaces and Partial
Differential Equations - Brezis, 2011.
Brezis showed the following claim (in Proposition 7.1).
Claim: Suppose that $A$ is a maximal monotone operator, $(I+lambda A): D(A) to R(I+lambda A)$ is a injective operator, and $|(I+lambda A)^{-1}u| leq |u| $ for all $u in R(I+lambda A)$ for all $lambda >0$. Then $R(I+lambda A) = H$.
The proof of Brezis:
We will prove that if $R(I+lambda_{0} A) = H$ for some $lambda_{0}>0$ then
$R(I+lambda A) = H$ for every $lambda > frac{1}{2}lambda_{0}$.
For some $f in H$, we try to solve the equation
$u+lambda Au = f$ with $lambda >0$. (1)
Equation (1) may be written as
$u+ lambda_{0}Au = frac{lambda_{0}}{lambda}f+ big( 1- frac{lambda_{0}}{lambda}u big)$
or alternatively
$u= (I+lambda A)^{-1}big[frac{lambda_{0}}{lambda}f+ big( 1- frac{lambda_{0}}{lambda}u big)big]$ $(2)$
If $|1-frac{lambda_{0}}{lambda}|< 1$, i.e., $lambda > frac{1}{2}lambda_{0}$, we may apply the contraction mapping principle (the Banach Fixed point Theorem) and deduce that (2) has a solution.
My question: how to prove that (2) has a solution using the the Banach Fixed point Theorem?
Thanks
Definitions:
An unbounded linear operator $A: D(A)subseteq H to H$ is said to be monotone if it satisfies
$langle A u, u rangle geq 0$ for all $uin D(A)$.
It is called maximal monotone if, in addition, $R(I+A)=H$.
functional-analysis pde
functional-analysis pde
asked Nov 30 at 22:42
Joao Maia
1586
1586
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2 Answers
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There are some typos in your derivation. Specifically the correct form of $(2)$ is:
$$u=(I+lambda_0 A)^{-1} left[frac{lambda_0}lambda fright]+(I+lambda_0 A)^{-1}left[(1-frac{lambda_0}lambda)uright].$$
Your equation is of the form
$$u=v + Bu$$
for a constant $v$ and a linear map $B$. In the case that $B$ is a contraction then $v+Bu$ is a contraction and you are done. So why is $B=(1-frac{lambda_0}lambda)(I+lambda_0A)^{-1}$ a contraction? Here note that $|(I+lambda_0 A)^{-1}|≤1$, use the positivity of $A$ if you wish. This gives you
$$|B|≤|1-frac{lambda_0}lambda|<1,$$
now you are finished.
add a comment |
Banach's fixed point theorem states that if an operator $T colon X to X$ on the non-empty complete metric space $(X, d)$ is a contraction, then $T$ has a unique fixed point $x^* in X$ such that $Tx^* = x^*$. This means that if you can show that $T$ is a contraction, i.e. $d(Tx, Ty) leq Kd(x, y)$ for some constant $0 leq K < 1$, then $T$ has a fixed point. If you can show that (2) is indeed a contraction, then there will exist a unique solution.
add a comment |
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2 Answers
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active
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votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
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There are some typos in your derivation. Specifically the correct form of $(2)$ is:
$$u=(I+lambda_0 A)^{-1} left[frac{lambda_0}lambda fright]+(I+lambda_0 A)^{-1}left[(1-frac{lambda_0}lambda)uright].$$
Your equation is of the form
$$u=v + Bu$$
for a constant $v$ and a linear map $B$. In the case that $B$ is a contraction then $v+Bu$ is a contraction and you are done. So why is $B=(1-frac{lambda_0}lambda)(I+lambda_0A)^{-1}$ a contraction? Here note that $|(I+lambda_0 A)^{-1}|≤1$, use the positivity of $A$ if you wish. This gives you
$$|B|≤|1-frac{lambda_0}lambda|<1,$$
now you are finished.
add a comment |
There are some typos in your derivation. Specifically the correct form of $(2)$ is:
$$u=(I+lambda_0 A)^{-1} left[frac{lambda_0}lambda fright]+(I+lambda_0 A)^{-1}left[(1-frac{lambda_0}lambda)uright].$$
Your equation is of the form
$$u=v + Bu$$
for a constant $v$ and a linear map $B$. In the case that $B$ is a contraction then $v+Bu$ is a contraction and you are done. So why is $B=(1-frac{lambda_0}lambda)(I+lambda_0A)^{-1}$ a contraction? Here note that $|(I+lambda_0 A)^{-1}|≤1$, use the positivity of $A$ if you wish. This gives you
$$|B|≤|1-frac{lambda_0}lambda|<1,$$
now you are finished.
add a comment |
There are some typos in your derivation. Specifically the correct form of $(2)$ is:
$$u=(I+lambda_0 A)^{-1} left[frac{lambda_0}lambda fright]+(I+lambda_0 A)^{-1}left[(1-frac{lambda_0}lambda)uright].$$
Your equation is of the form
$$u=v + Bu$$
for a constant $v$ and a linear map $B$. In the case that $B$ is a contraction then $v+Bu$ is a contraction and you are done. So why is $B=(1-frac{lambda_0}lambda)(I+lambda_0A)^{-1}$ a contraction? Here note that $|(I+lambda_0 A)^{-1}|≤1$, use the positivity of $A$ if you wish. This gives you
$$|B|≤|1-frac{lambda_0}lambda|<1,$$
now you are finished.
There are some typos in your derivation. Specifically the correct form of $(2)$ is:
$$u=(I+lambda_0 A)^{-1} left[frac{lambda_0}lambda fright]+(I+lambda_0 A)^{-1}left[(1-frac{lambda_0}lambda)uright].$$
Your equation is of the form
$$u=v + Bu$$
for a constant $v$ and a linear map $B$. In the case that $B$ is a contraction then $v+Bu$ is a contraction and you are done. So why is $B=(1-frac{lambda_0}lambda)(I+lambda_0A)^{-1}$ a contraction? Here note that $|(I+lambda_0 A)^{-1}|≤1$, use the positivity of $A$ if you wish. This gives you
$$|B|≤|1-frac{lambda_0}lambda|<1,$$
now you are finished.
answered Nov 30 at 23:11
s.harp
8,39312049
8,39312049
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add a comment |
Banach's fixed point theorem states that if an operator $T colon X to X$ on the non-empty complete metric space $(X, d)$ is a contraction, then $T$ has a unique fixed point $x^* in X$ such that $Tx^* = x^*$. This means that if you can show that $T$ is a contraction, i.e. $d(Tx, Ty) leq Kd(x, y)$ for some constant $0 leq K < 1$, then $T$ has a fixed point. If you can show that (2) is indeed a contraction, then there will exist a unique solution.
add a comment |
Banach's fixed point theorem states that if an operator $T colon X to X$ on the non-empty complete metric space $(X, d)$ is a contraction, then $T$ has a unique fixed point $x^* in X$ such that $Tx^* = x^*$. This means that if you can show that $T$ is a contraction, i.e. $d(Tx, Ty) leq Kd(x, y)$ for some constant $0 leq K < 1$, then $T$ has a fixed point. If you can show that (2) is indeed a contraction, then there will exist a unique solution.
add a comment |
Banach's fixed point theorem states that if an operator $T colon X to X$ on the non-empty complete metric space $(X, d)$ is a contraction, then $T$ has a unique fixed point $x^* in X$ such that $Tx^* = x^*$. This means that if you can show that $T$ is a contraction, i.e. $d(Tx, Ty) leq Kd(x, y)$ for some constant $0 leq K < 1$, then $T$ has a fixed point. If you can show that (2) is indeed a contraction, then there will exist a unique solution.
Banach's fixed point theorem states that if an operator $T colon X to X$ on the non-empty complete metric space $(X, d)$ is a contraction, then $T$ has a unique fixed point $x^* in X$ such that $Tx^* = x^*$. This means that if you can show that $T$ is a contraction, i.e. $d(Tx, Ty) leq Kd(x, y)$ for some constant $0 leq K < 1$, then $T$ has a fixed point. If you can show that (2) is indeed a contraction, then there will exist a unique solution.
answered Nov 30 at 23:03
Erik André
764
764
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add a comment |
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